APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank LATEST UPDATED VERSION
APEA 3P ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK LATEST UPDATED VERSION 2025
1. When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the
left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means:
a) Have the patient return in two weeks for a follow-up vision screen
b) Dilate the eye and retest
c) Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist
d) Document this as a normal finding
•Rationale: Visual acuity of 20/40 in one eye requires further evaluation by an
ophthalmologist to rule out any underlying conditions.
2. The American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of
Mental Disorders defines Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy as:
a) A self-inflicted injury to gain attention
b) A caregiver making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under their care
c) An abusive behavior that does not involve the caregiver
d) A situation in which the abuser is often inattentive and uncaring toward the victim
•Rationale: Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy is a mental illness in which a caregiver
fabricates or induces illness in someone under their care, typically for attention or
sympathy.
1
,APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank LATEST UPDATED VERSION
3. Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter medication?
a) Dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine
b) Gabapentin
c) Mil
d) Cortisol
• Rationale: Imbalances in these neurotransmitters are commonly associated with
depression.
4. Which lesion is dark, raised, and asymmetric with an irregular border?
a) Nevus
b) Actinic keratosis
c) Keratoacanthoma
d) Melanoma
• Rationale: Melanomas are dark, asymmetric lesions with irregular borders and require
immediate evaluation.
5. A 32-year-old woman presents with dull puffiness of the eyes and pronounced
non-pitting periorbital edema. This finding is suggestive of which condition?
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Myxedema
c) Cushing syndrome
2
,APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank LATEST UPDATED VERSION
d) Sinusitis
Rationale: Non-pitting periorbital edema is characteristic of myxedema, associated with
hypothyroidism.
6. A 42-year-old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches is
requesting prophylactic medication treatment. Which medication should the
nurse practitioner prescribe?
a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
b) Amitriptyline (Elavil)
c) Verapamil (Verelan)
d) Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• Rationale: Amitriptyline is commonly used off-label for migraine prophylaxis.
7. A pediatric patient has areas of scaling on the scalp with round patches of alopecia.
This clinical finding is consistent with:
a) Tinea capitis
b) Seborrheic dermatitis
c) Trichotillomania
d) Alopecia areata
• Rationale: Tinea capitis presents with scaly patches and alopecia on the scalp.
8. What is the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18-year-old woman with a
past medical history of migraine headaches?
3
, APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank LATEST UPDATED VERSION
a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
b) Propranolol (Inderal)
c) Ibuprofen (Motrin)
d) Dihydroergotamine (DHE)
• Rationale: Propranolol is a first-line medication for migraine prophylaxis.
9. Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36-year-old
patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity, chronic smoking, and a
sedentary lifestyle?
a) She is obese
b) She has type 2 diabetes mellitus
c) Her age and tobacco use
d) She leads a sedentary lifestyle
• Rationale: Combined oral contraceptives are contraindicated in women older than 35
who smoke due to an increased risk of cardiovascular events.
10. During the breast examination of a perimenopausal woman, the nurse practitioner
detects a bloody spontaneous discharge from the right nipple. This indicates further
evaluation for:
a) Fibroadenoma b) Polycystic breast disease
c) An intraductal papilloma
d) Pituitary prolactinoma
• Rationale: Bloody nipple discharge often indicates an intraductal papilloma, a benign
condition.
4
APEA 3P ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK LATEST UPDATED VERSION 2025
1. When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the
left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means:
a) Have the patient return in two weeks for a follow-up vision screen
b) Dilate the eye and retest
c) Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist
d) Document this as a normal finding
•Rationale: Visual acuity of 20/40 in one eye requires further evaluation by an
ophthalmologist to rule out any underlying conditions.
2. The American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of
Mental Disorders defines Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy as:
a) A self-inflicted injury to gain attention
b) A caregiver making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under their care
c) An abusive behavior that does not involve the caregiver
d) A situation in which the abuser is often inattentive and uncaring toward the victim
•Rationale: Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy is a mental illness in which a caregiver
fabricates or induces illness in someone under their care, typically for attention or
sympathy.
1
,APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank LATEST UPDATED VERSION
3. Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter medication?
a) Dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine
b) Gabapentin
c) Mil
d) Cortisol
• Rationale: Imbalances in these neurotransmitters are commonly associated with
depression.
4. Which lesion is dark, raised, and asymmetric with an irregular border?
a) Nevus
b) Actinic keratosis
c) Keratoacanthoma
d) Melanoma
• Rationale: Melanomas are dark, asymmetric lesions with irregular borders and require
immediate evaluation.
5. A 32-year-old woman presents with dull puffiness of the eyes and pronounced
non-pitting periorbital edema. This finding is suggestive of which condition?
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Myxedema
c) Cushing syndrome
2
,APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank LATEST UPDATED VERSION
d) Sinusitis
Rationale: Non-pitting periorbital edema is characteristic of myxedema, associated with
hypothyroidism.
6. A 42-year-old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches is
requesting prophylactic medication treatment. Which medication should the
nurse practitioner prescribe?
a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
b) Amitriptyline (Elavil)
c) Verapamil (Verelan)
d) Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• Rationale: Amitriptyline is commonly used off-label for migraine prophylaxis.
7. A pediatric patient has areas of scaling on the scalp with round patches of alopecia.
This clinical finding is consistent with:
a) Tinea capitis
b) Seborrheic dermatitis
c) Trichotillomania
d) Alopecia areata
• Rationale: Tinea capitis presents with scaly patches and alopecia on the scalp.
8. What is the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18-year-old woman with a
past medical history of migraine headaches?
3
, APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank LATEST UPDATED VERSION
a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
b) Propranolol (Inderal)
c) Ibuprofen (Motrin)
d) Dihydroergotamine (DHE)
• Rationale: Propranolol is a first-line medication for migraine prophylaxis.
9. Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36-year-old
patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity, chronic smoking, and a
sedentary lifestyle?
a) She is obese
b) She has type 2 diabetes mellitus
c) Her age and tobacco use
d) She leads a sedentary lifestyle
• Rationale: Combined oral contraceptives are contraindicated in women older than 35
who smoke due to an increased risk of cardiovascular events.
10. During the breast examination of a perimenopausal woman, the nurse practitioner
detects a bloody spontaneous discharge from the right nipple. This indicates further
evaluation for:
a) Fibroadenoma b) Polycystic breast disease
c) An intraductal papilloma
d) Pituitary prolactinoma
• Rationale: Bloody nipple discharge often indicates an intraductal papilloma, a benign
condition.
4
