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Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case Questions and answers Newest RATED A+

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Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case Questions and answers Newest RATED A+ Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case Questions and answers Newest RATED A+ Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case Questions and answers Newest RATED A+ Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case Questions and answers Newest RATED A+ Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case Questions and answers Newest RATED A+ Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case Questions and answers Newest RATED A+

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Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case
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Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case

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Aquifer Internal Medicine End of Case
Questions and answers Newest RATED A+

A 52-year-old female presents with one month of progressive dyspnea on exertion, a productive
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cough of clear sputum, bilateral leg swelling, and orthopnea. She has had no chest pain or fevers.
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She has a history of poorly controlled hypertension and 30-pack-years of smoking. Before
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beginning her physical exam, you determine that her pre-exam probability of heart failure is
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moderate. On exam, you find a jugular venous pulse and pressure (JVP) of 12 cm with positive
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hepatojugular reflux, regular heart rate, normal S1 and S2 with S3 gallop, 3/6 systolic crescendo-
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decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border, crackles at both lung bases. Which of the II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!




following physical examination findings most increases your post-exam probability of congestive
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heart failure?
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A. Bibasilar crackles
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B. Hepatojugular reflux
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C. Increased jugular venous pressure
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D. Systolic murmur in the aortic area
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E. Third heart sound - Correct Answers The answer is E. From IM 04.
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II! A 68-year-old male with hypertension and non-ischemic cardiomyopathy is admitted to the
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II! hospital with an acute exacerbation of his congestive heart failure (CHF). An echocardiogram
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II! (ECG) one month ago showed left-ventricular hypertrophy and a left-ventricular ejection fracture
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II! (LVEF) of 60%. He takes ramipril and chlorthalidone at home, and these are continued. His pulse is
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II! 85 beats/minutes, blood pressure is 134/88 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 95% on two liters of
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II! oxygen by nasal cannula. His exam is notable for jugular venous pulse and pressure (JVP) of 12,
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II! bilateral leg edema, and crackles at his lung bases. What will be the next step in management of
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II! this man? II!




A. Add furosemide intravenously
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B. Add metoprolol orally
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,C. Add valsartan
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D. Increase dose of chlorthalidone
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E. Increase dose of ramipril - Correct Answers The answer is A. From IM 04.
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A 56-year-old female with non-ischemic cardiomyopathy and hypertension presents to the office
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for a routine followup. Her last hospitalization for a congestive heart failure (CHF) exacerbation
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was two years ago. Currently, she has no shortness of breath, orthopnea, leg edema, or chest
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pain. She has been following a low-salt diet and does not drink alcohol. Her medications are
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carvedilol and a baby aspirin. Her home blood pressure measurements have ranged from 140-
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150/80-90 mmHg. Her exam is notable for a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. Her pulse is 60 II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!




beats/minute with normal S1 and S2 with no murmurs or gallops, and she has a normal
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respiratory rate. Her jugular venous pulse and pressure (JVP) is normal and her lungs are clear.
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Her point of maximal impulse (PMI) is laterally displaced. What medication should you add that
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can also improve her mortality from heart failure?
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A. Amlodipine
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B. Digoxin
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C. Furosemide
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D. Hyd - Correct Answers The answer is E. From IM 04.
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II! Which of the following physical examination findings is most consistent with right-sided heart
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II! failure?



A. Abdominojugular reflux
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B. Bibasilar crackles
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C. Pitting pedal edema
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D. Sustained apical impulse
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E. Systolic murmur at right upper sternal border - Correct Answers The answer is A. From IM 04.
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,II! A 68-year-old female is admitted to the hospital because of increasing dyspnea and orthopnea
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II! over the past two weeks. Her medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy with an
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II! ejection fraction of 40% and low back pain for one month. She reports no chest pain, palpitations,
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II! fever, and cough. She has been adherent to a low-sodium diet. She does not use alcohol or
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II! tobacco. Daily medications are carvedilol, lisinopril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, aspirin, and
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II! ibuprofen. Which medication would most likely cause her worsening symptoms?
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A. Amlodipine
II!




B. Atorvastatin
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C. Carvedilol
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D. Ibuprofen
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E. Lisinopril - Correct Answers The answer is D. From IM 04.
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II! A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with 18 hours of lower abdominal
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II! pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. She is afebrile and has normal vital signs except for
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II! tachycardia with a pulse at 105 beats/minute. Her abdomen is soft and non-distended with
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II! hypoactive bowel sounds. There is rebound tenderness in the left-lower quadrant. The
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II! abdominal exam finding of rebound tenderness has +LR = 2 and -LR = 0.4 for peritonitis. What is
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II! the best interpretation of this finding?
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A. Absence of rebound tenderness strongly argues against peritonitis
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B. Absence of rebound tenderness strongly argues against peritonitis, but presence of it does not
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affect the probability of peritonitis
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C. Neither the presence nor the absence of rebound tenderness is very helpful in diagnosing
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peritonitis
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D. Presence of rebound tenderness strongly suggests peritonitis
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E. Presence of rebound tenderness strongly suggests peritoniti - Correct Answers The answer is
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C. From IM 12.
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, II! A 39-year-old male with no significant past medical history presents to the hospital with lower
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II! abdominal pain for the past two days. His initial vitals are notable where his temperature is 38.5 C
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II! (101.3 F), pulse is 112 beats/minute, and blood pressure is 103/68 mmHg. He reports that his last
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II! bowel movement was two days ago, and he recalls passing flatus earlier today. Your physical
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II! exam reveals hypoactive bowel sounds, and a diffusely tender abdomen, most tender in the
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II! right-lower quadrant. His abdominal muscles are tense, and do not relax with distraction II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!




II! techniques. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis confirms your II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!




II! suspected diagnosis. You order broad-spectrum intravenous (IV) antibiotics. What is the best next
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II! step in management?
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A. Call a gastrointestinal (GI) consult for colonoscopy
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B. Call a surgical consult
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C. Order a bowel regimen
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D. Place a nasogastric tube for decompression
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E. Start - Correct Answers The answer is B. From IM 12.
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II! A 68-year-old male with a history of peptic ulcer disease, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension is
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II! admitted to the hospital with a 24-hour history of abdominal pain and three episodes of loose
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II! stool. Initial vital signs reveal temperature is 38.9 C (102.02 F), pulse is 102 beats/minute,
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II! respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is
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II! 98% on room air. White blood count (WBC) is 13,100 cells/μl. He has tenderness to palpation of
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II! the left lower quadrant of his abdomen, with guarding but no rigidity. Renal function is normal.
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II! Computerized tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows sigmoid diverticulitis II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II! II!




II! without any sign of abscess or perforation. In addition to ordering intravenous (IV) antibiotics, IV
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II! fluid, and pain medication, what is the next best step in management?
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A. Blood cultures
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B. Colorectal surgery consult
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C. High-fiber diet
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D. Stool culture
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E. Stool te - Correct Answers The answer is A. From IM 12.
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