American Nurses Association
AACN American Association of Critical- Care Nurses
ACNPC- AG Adult- Gerontology Acute. Care Nurse
Practitioner Certification
AACN ACNPC- AG Certification Exam
Course Title and Number: AACN ACNPC-AG Certification
Exam
Exam Title: Certification and Assessment
Exam Date: Exam 2025- 2026
Instructor: ____ [Insert Instructor’s Name] _______
Student Name: ___ [Insert Student’s Name] _____
Student ID: ____ [Insert Student ID] _____________
Examination
Time: - ____ Hours: ___ Minutes
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses.
4. Ensure all answers are final before submitting the exam.
5. Please answer each question below and click Submit when you
have completed the Exam.
6. This test has a time limit, The test will save and submit
automatically when the time expires
7. This is Exam which will assess your knowledge on the course
Learning Resources.
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AACN ACNPC- AG Certification PSI Proctored Exam Complete
175 Questions Adult - Gerontology Acute Care Nurse Practitioner
Certification AACN ACNPC- AG Exam Review with Answers and
Rationales | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
2025- 2026
AACN ACNPC- AG Certification Exam
Adult- Gerontology Acute. Care Nurse Practitioner Certification
ACNPC- AG
AACN American Association of Critical- Care Nurses
American Nurses Association
Read All Instructions Carefully and Answer All the
Questions Correctly Good Luck: -
AACN ACNPC- AG Complete 175 Questions and Answers
This is the Actual AACN ACNPC- AG Exam for March 2025 Proctored
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American Association of Critical- Care Nurses (AACN) Adult-
Gerontology Acute. Care Nurse Practitioner Certification
(ACNPC- AG) 2025 Actual Exam Questions and Answers
1. Postoperative assessment is performed on a
patient who underwent a lumbar 4/5
laminectomy and discectomy 2 hours ago.
Preoperatively, she had pain in her right hip and
leg with numbness of her right foot, but no
weakness. At the time of the examination, her
motor strength is 5/5 in all extremities, and she
has not voided postoperatively. She is concerned
that the numbness in her foot has not resolved.
Which of the following is an ACNP's best action?
o A. Reassure her that numbness often persists
postoperatively.
o B. Scan her bladder to assess for cauda equina
syndrome.
o C. Obtain a CT scan of her lumbar spine to
evaluate for hematoma.
o D. Administer steroids for nerve root
radiculopathy.
o Correct answer= B.
o Rationale: Postoperative urinary retention
can lead to cauda equina syndrome, which is a
surgical emergency. The patient's persistent
numbness and lack of voiding necessitate
ruling out this potentially serious complication.
2. It is important to emphasize which of the
following when providing smoking cessation
education to a patient after coronary stent
placement?
o A. Patients with atherosclerosis are more likely
to develop lung disease within 5 years.
o B. Within 3 years of cessation, coronary artery
disease risk improves.
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o C. Nicotine and clopidogrel (Plavix) may
produce adverse effects.
o D. Most patients find it easy to quit smoking
after stent placement.
o Correct answer= B.
o Rationale: Emphasizing the relatively short-
term benefits of smoking cessation on
cardiovascular risk is a powerful motivator for
patients after stent placement.
3. A patient has subcutaneous gas on CT scan in the
left foot with erythema extending up the lower
extremity. The vascular surgeon is requesting a
CT angiography of the lower extremity to assess
vascular status prior to operative intervention.
Which laboratory data is most concerning for
ordering this test?
o A. hemoglobin 7 g/dL
o B. lactate 2 mmol/L
o C. WBC 15/mm³
o D. creatinine 1.9 mg/dL
o Correct answer= D.
o Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.9 mg/dL
indicates potential renal impairment, which is
a relative contraindication for CT angiography
due to the nephrotoxic potential of the
contrast dye.
4. A patient's laboratory results show a potassium
level of 8.0, and an ECG reveals peaked T waves.
In addition to 25 g dextrose 50%, which of the
following is the best emergency treatment?
o A. sodium polystyrene sulfonate resin
(Kayexalate) 25 g, regular insulin 20 units
o B. calcium gluconate 10 mL, regular insulin 10
units
o C. calcium chloride 10 mL, regular insulin 20
units
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o D. magnesium sulfate 1 g, regular insulin 10
units
o Correct answer= B.
o Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered
to stabilize the cardiac membrane and prevent
arrhythmias associated with hyperkalemia.
Insulin and dextrose shift potassium
intracellularly. Kayexalate removes potassium
from the body, but works slowly.
5. A patient was in a 45 mph rollover MVC. His GCS
was 7, and he was intubated by EMS at the
scene. He presents to the emergency department
with BP 76/54 and HR 90 after 2 L of normal
saline. The airway is maintained with an
endotracheal tube. Initially, there are bilateral
breath sounds, pulses 1+ throughout, and his
skin is cool. External bleeding is controlled and
the GCS is now 3T. Secondary examination shows
Grey Turner's sign and a positive abdominal FAST
examination. Which of the following is the correct
disposition for this patient?
o A. Admit to the ICU.
o B. Stabilize in the emergency department.
o C. Transfer to the operating room.
o D. Send for a CT scan.
o Correct answer= C.
o Rationale: The patient's hemodynamic
instability, positive FAST exam, and Grey
Turner's sign suggest significant intra-
abdominal bleeding, likely from a ruptured
spleen or liver, requiring immediate surgical
intervention.
6. Which of the following abnormalities places a
patient at highest risk for embolic stroke?
o A. aortic stenosis
o B. patent ductus arteriosus
o C. pulmonary stenosis
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o D. atrial septal defect
o Correct answer= D.
o Rationale: Atrial septal defects can lead to
paradoxical emboli, where clots from the
venous system cross into the arterial system
through the defect, increasing the risk of
stroke.
7. A 45-year-old patient died following a prolonged
resuscitation attempt secondary to an MVC. The
patient's family has arrived to the hospital and
wants to be updated on the patient's condition. A
meeting is set up with the family. An important
initial step in this meeting includes
o A. understanding what the family knows about
the patient's situation.
o B. summarize events and establish plans for
subsequent patient care.
o C. conveying the news to appropriate
individuals using easily understood terms.
o D. empathizing with the individuals' emotions.
o Correct answer= A.
o Rationale: Before delivering difficult news,
it's crucial to understand the family's existing
knowledge and expectations to tailor the
conversation appropriately.
8. A staff nurse mentions to an ACNP that she read
an article on vitamin D deficiency and its
relationship to heart failure. The staff nurse
thought that the cardiologists should screen all
heart failure patients for vitamin D deficiency on
admission and wants to know why it is not done.
The best next step for the ACNP is to
o A. begin screening all patients with heart
failure admissions.
o B. do a complete literature search and share
the findings with the staff nurse.
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o C. take the information to the cardiology
medical staff committee for evaluation.
o D. encourage the nurse to do a literature
search and help her evaluate the data.
o Correct answer= D.
o Rationale: Fostering evidence-based practice
involves guiding the nurse to critically
evaluate the literature and participate in the
process of clinical inquiry.
9. An 80-year-old patient with a pelvic fracture
develops mild dyspnea, hypoxia, altered mental
status, and a petechial rash the day following the
trauma. The most likely diagnosis is
o A. fat embolism.
o B. allergic drug reaction.
o C. congestive heart failure.
o D. pulmonary edema.
o Correct answer= A.
o Rationale: The combination of dyspnea,
hypoxia, altered mental status, and petechial
rash following a long bone or pelvic fracture is
highly suggestive of fat embolism syndrome.
10. A patient presents after being intubated in the
field status post fall with numerous visible
injuries. The most appropriate initial assessment
is
o A. peripheral pulses.
o B. breath sounds.
o C. level of consciousness.
o D. pupillary response.
o Correct answer= B.
o Rationale: In a trauma patient, airway and
breathing are the priority. Ensuring proper
ventilation and oxygenation is paramount.
11. A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical
ventilation. Arterial blood gas results are: pH
7.28, PaCO2 57 mm Hg, PaO2 56 mm Hg, HCO3
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18 mEq/L, SaO2 84%. Ventilator settings are as
follows: FiO2 70%, Rate 15 breaths/minute, Tidal
volume 600 mL, PEEP 5 cm H2O. Which of the
following adjustments should an ACNP make to
optimize oxygenation?
o A. Increase tidal volume.
o B. Decrease FiO2
o C. Increase PEEP
o D. Decrease respiratory rate.
o Correct answer= C.
o Rationale: Increasing PEEP will help to recruit
collapsed alveoli and improve oxygenation in
ARDS.
12. A patient presents with shortness of breath,
fever, productive cough, and lethargy. The
patient recently completed 6 weeks of IV
antibiotics for osteomyelitis and was undergoing
wound care in a skilled nursing facility prior to
transfer to the hospital. Initial vital signs and
laboratory results while receiving oxygen at 2
L/min via nasal cannula are below: BP 136/87, HR
105, RR 18, T 100.7 F (38.2° C), SpO2 92%, WBC
17.3/mm³, Procalcitonin 11.4 ng/mL, Lactic acid
1.0 mmol/L. The most appropriate treatment plan
for this patient includes orders for
o A. an ABG and albuterol every 4 hours.
o B. a chest CT and blood culture.
o C. a chest x-ray and blood and sputum
cultures.
o D. a 30 mL/kg normal saline bolus IV and
repeat lactic acid.
o Correct answer= C.
o Rationale: The patient's presentation
suggests pneumonia. A chest x-ray is essential
for diagnosis, and blood and sputum cultures
will guide antibiotic therapy.
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AACN American Association of Critical- Care Nurses
ACNPC- AG Adult- Gerontology Acute. Care Nurse
Practitioner Certification
AACN ACNPC- AG Certification Exam
Course Title and Number: AACN ACNPC-AG Certification
Exam
Exam Title: Certification and Assessment
Exam Date: Exam 2025- 2026
Instructor: ____ [Insert Instructor’s Name] _______
Student Name: ___ [Insert Student’s Name] _____
Student ID: ____ [Insert Student ID] _____________
Examination
Time: - ____ Hours: ___ Minutes
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. Answer all questions.
3. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses.
4. Ensure all answers are final before submitting the exam.
5. Please answer each question below and click Submit when you
have completed the Exam.
6. This test has a time limit, The test will save and submit
automatically when the time expires
7. This is Exam which will assess your knowledge on the course
Learning Resources.
Good Luck……...!
, I can Help BYPASS PROCTORED EXAM 📑
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💬 Chat with us here: 📧
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AACN ACNPC- AG Certification PSI Proctored Exam Complete
175 Questions Adult - Gerontology Acute Care Nurse Practitioner
Certification AACN ACNPC- AG Exam Review with Answers and
Rationales | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
2025- 2026
AACN ACNPC- AG Certification Exam
Adult- Gerontology Acute. Care Nurse Practitioner Certification
ACNPC- AG
AACN American Association of Critical- Care Nurses
American Nurses Association
Read All Instructions Carefully and Answer All the
Questions Correctly Good Luck: -
AACN ACNPC- AG Complete 175 Questions and Answers
This is the Actual AACN ACNPC- AG Exam for March 2025 Proctored
Via PSI
I can Bypass Proctored Exams Like HMU If U Need help With This Or
Any Other Test
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American Association of Critical- Care Nurses (AACN) Adult-
Gerontology Acute. Care Nurse Practitioner Certification
(ACNPC- AG) 2025 Actual Exam Questions and Answers
1. Postoperative assessment is performed on a
patient who underwent a lumbar 4/5
laminectomy and discectomy 2 hours ago.
Preoperatively, she had pain in her right hip and
leg with numbness of her right foot, but no
weakness. At the time of the examination, her
motor strength is 5/5 in all extremities, and she
has not voided postoperatively. She is concerned
that the numbness in her foot has not resolved.
Which of the following is an ACNP's best action?
o A. Reassure her that numbness often persists
postoperatively.
o B. Scan her bladder to assess for cauda equina
syndrome.
o C. Obtain a CT scan of her lumbar spine to
evaluate for hematoma.
o D. Administer steroids for nerve root
radiculopathy.
o Correct answer= B.
o Rationale: Postoperative urinary retention
can lead to cauda equina syndrome, which is a
surgical emergency. The patient's persistent
numbness and lack of voiding necessitate
ruling out this potentially serious complication.
2. It is important to emphasize which of the
following when providing smoking cessation
education to a patient after coronary stent
placement?
o A. Patients with atherosclerosis are more likely
to develop lung disease within 5 years.
o B. Within 3 years of cessation, coronary artery
disease risk improves.
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o C. Nicotine and clopidogrel (Plavix) may
produce adverse effects.
o D. Most patients find it easy to quit smoking
after stent placement.
o Correct answer= B.
o Rationale: Emphasizing the relatively short-
term benefits of smoking cessation on
cardiovascular risk is a powerful motivator for
patients after stent placement.
3. A patient has subcutaneous gas on CT scan in the
left foot with erythema extending up the lower
extremity. The vascular surgeon is requesting a
CT angiography of the lower extremity to assess
vascular status prior to operative intervention.
Which laboratory data is most concerning for
ordering this test?
o A. hemoglobin 7 g/dL
o B. lactate 2 mmol/L
o C. WBC 15/mm³
o D. creatinine 1.9 mg/dL
o Correct answer= D.
o Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.9 mg/dL
indicates potential renal impairment, which is
a relative contraindication for CT angiography
due to the nephrotoxic potential of the
contrast dye.
4. A patient's laboratory results show a potassium
level of 8.0, and an ECG reveals peaked T waves.
In addition to 25 g dextrose 50%, which of the
following is the best emergency treatment?
o A. sodium polystyrene sulfonate resin
(Kayexalate) 25 g, regular insulin 20 units
o B. calcium gluconate 10 mL, regular insulin 10
units
o C. calcium chloride 10 mL, regular insulin 20
units
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o D. magnesium sulfate 1 g, regular insulin 10
units
o Correct answer= B.
o Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered
to stabilize the cardiac membrane and prevent
arrhythmias associated with hyperkalemia.
Insulin and dextrose shift potassium
intracellularly. Kayexalate removes potassium
from the body, but works slowly.
5. A patient was in a 45 mph rollover MVC. His GCS
was 7, and he was intubated by EMS at the
scene. He presents to the emergency department
with BP 76/54 and HR 90 after 2 L of normal
saline. The airway is maintained with an
endotracheal tube. Initially, there are bilateral
breath sounds, pulses 1+ throughout, and his
skin is cool. External bleeding is controlled and
the GCS is now 3T. Secondary examination shows
Grey Turner's sign and a positive abdominal FAST
examination. Which of the following is the correct
disposition for this patient?
o A. Admit to the ICU.
o B. Stabilize in the emergency department.
o C. Transfer to the operating room.
o D. Send for a CT scan.
o Correct answer= C.
o Rationale: The patient's hemodynamic
instability, positive FAST exam, and Grey
Turner's sign suggest significant intra-
abdominal bleeding, likely from a ruptured
spleen or liver, requiring immediate surgical
intervention.
6. Which of the following abnormalities places a
patient at highest risk for embolic stroke?
o A. aortic stenosis
o B. patent ductus arteriosus
o C. pulmonary stenosis
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o D. atrial septal defect
o Correct answer= D.
o Rationale: Atrial septal defects can lead to
paradoxical emboli, where clots from the
venous system cross into the arterial system
through the defect, increasing the risk of
stroke.
7. A 45-year-old patient died following a prolonged
resuscitation attempt secondary to an MVC. The
patient's family has arrived to the hospital and
wants to be updated on the patient's condition. A
meeting is set up with the family. An important
initial step in this meeting includes
o A. understanding what the family knows about
the patient's situation.
o B. summarize events and establish plans for
subsequent patient care.
o C. conveying the news to appropriate
individuals using easily understood terms.
o D. empathizing with the individuals' emotions.
o Correct answer= A.
o Rationale: Before delivering difficult news,
it's crucial to understand the family's existing
knowledge and expectations to tailor the
conversation appropriately.
8. A staff nurse mentions to an ACNP that she read
an article on vitamin D deficiency and its
relationship to heart failure. The staff nurse
thought that the cardiologists should screen all
heart failure patients for vitamin D deficiency on
admission and wants to know why it is not done.
The best next step for the ACNP is to
o A. begin screening all patients with heart
failure admissions.
o B. do a complete literature search and share
the findings with the staff nurse.
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o C. take the information to the cardiology
medical staff committee for evaluation.
o D. encourage the nurse to do a literature
search and help her evaluate the data.
o Correct answer= D.
o Rationale: Fostering evidence-based practice
involves guiding the nurse to critically
evaluate the literature and participate in the
process of clinical inquiry.
9. An 80-year-old patient with a pelvic fracture
develops mild dyspnea, hypoxia, altered mental
status, and a petechial rash the day following the
trauma. The most likely diagnosis is
o A. fat embolism.
o B. allergic drug reaction.
o C. congestive heart failure.
o D. pulmonary edema.
o Correct answer= A.
o Rationale: The combination of dyspnea,
hypoxia, altered mental status, and petechial
rash following a long bone or pelvic fracture is
highly suggestive of fat embolism syndrome.
10. A patient presents after being intubated in the
field status post fall with numerous visible
injuries. The most appropriate initial assessment
is
o A. peripheral pulses.
o B. breath sounds.
o C. level of consciousness.
o D. pupillary response.
o Correct answer= B.
o Rationale: In a trauma patient, airway and
breathing are the priority. Ensuring proper
ventilation and oxygenation is paramount.
11. A patient with ARDS is receiving mechanical
ventilation. Arterial blood gas results are: pH
7.28, PaCO2 57 mm Hg, PaO2 56 mm Hg, HCO3
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18 mEq/L, SaO2 84%. Ventilator settings are as
follows: FiO2 70%, Rate 15 breaths/minute, Tidal
volume 600 mL, PEEP 5 cm H2O. Which of the
following adjustments should an ACNP make to
optimize oxygenation?
o A. Increase tidal volume.
o B. Decrease FiO2
o C. Increase PEEP
o D. Decrease respiratory rate.
o Correct answer= C.
o Rationale: Increasing PEEP will help to recruit
collapsed alveoli and improve oxygenation in
ARDS.
12. A patient presents with shortness of breath,
fever, productive cough, and lethargy. The
patient recently completed 6 weeks of IV
antibiotics for osteomyelitis and was undergoing
wound care in a skilled nursing facility prior to
transfer to the hospital. Initial vital signs and
laboratory results while receiving oxygen at 2
L/min via nasal cannula are below: BP 136/87, HR
105, RR 18, T 100.7 F (38.2° C), SpO2 92%, WBC
17.3/mm³, Procalcitonin 11.4 ng/mL, Lactic acid
1.0 mmol/L. The most appropriate treatment plan
for this patient includes orders for
o A. an ABG and albuterol every 4 hours.
o B. a chest CT and blood culture.
o C. a chest x-ray and blood and sputum
cultures.
o D. a 30 mL/kg normal saline bolus IV and
repeat lactic acid.
o Correct answer= C.
o Rationale: The patient's presentation
suggests pneumonia. A chest x-ray is essential
for diagnosis, and blood and sputum cultures
will guide antibiotic therapy.
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