B2 Commercial Building Inspector Study Guide Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+

B2 Commercial Building Inspector Study Guide Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+ Ch 1 Scope & Administration The requirements in the International Building Code must apply to the ___________ of any building or structure with the exception of residential single-family dwellings. a.) construction b.) alteration c.) repair d.) A through C - Answer: d.) A through C _______ must comply with the requirements in the International Residential Code. a.) Detached one-family dwellings b.) Detached two-family dwellings c.) Multiple single-family dwellings d.) A through C - Answer: d.) A through C The IBC establishes mimimum requirements for the built environment in order to provide a reasonable level of _______ A) safety B) public health C) general welfare D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The provisions of this code (IBC) must not nullify any provisions of _____ law A) local B) state C) federal D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The building official is authorized to ______ of this code A) enforce requirements B) render interpretations C) clarify the application D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The building official is authorized to enter a building structure at reasonable times to inspect or to perform duties imposed by the code A) True B) False - Answer: A) True The building official is relieved from personal liability for any damage accuring to persons or property as a result of any act or by any reason of an act or omission in the discharge of official duties so long as he is acting for the jurisdiction in good faith and without malice A) True B) False - Answer: A)True The building inspector must approve an alternative material if he finds that the material is equivalent in ______ to the one required A) strength B) effectiveness C) safety D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Where necessary to assist in the approval of _____ not specifically provided for in this code, supporting data consisting of valid research reports from approved sources must be present A) materials B) assemblies C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A & B The building official has the authority to require tests on alternative materials in order to provide evidence of compliance at no expense to the jurisdiction A) True B) False - Answer: A) True The building code official is authorized to issue an annual permit for alterations to an approved electrical, gas, mechanical or plumbing installation A) True B) False - Answer: A) True Permits are not required for one-story detached accessory structures that are used as tool sheds, storage sheds, or playhouses , if their floor area is ___________ max A) 80 sq ft B) 100 Sq ft C) 120 Sq ft D) 160 sq ft - Answer: C) 120 sq ft Permits are not required for fences that are under how many feet? A) 6' B) 7' C) 8' D) 9' - Answer: B) 7' Permits are not required for__________________________ A) painting, papering and tiling B) non-fixed and movable fixtures C) temporary motion picture sets D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C A permit is not required for mechanical work performed in which of the following equipment/appliances A) portable heating appliance B) portable ventilation equipment C) portable cooling unit D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Which of the following plumbing work does not require a permit? A) stopping leaks in pipes B) repairing leaks in pipes C) clearing stoppages D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Any drain, water, soil, waste or vent pipes that become defective to the point where it is necessary to remove and replace it with new material is considered new work and requires ________________ A) permit B) inspection C) Both A & B D) neither A nor B - Answer: Both A & B Where equipment is replaced without a permit because of an emergency situation, the permit application must be submitted within _____ of the replacement or repair A) next working business day B) 3 days C) a week D) one month - Answer: A) next working business day A permit is not required for the _________of generation, transmission, distribution or metering equipment that is under the ownership and control of public service agencies A) installation B) alteration C) repair D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The applicant of a permit must first file an application on a form furnished by the dept. of building safety that ________________ A) identifies the work B) describes the land C) indicates the use and occupancy D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Every permit issued becomes invalid if the authorized work is not commenced within ____ days A) 30 B) 90 C) 180 D) 270 - Answer: C) 180 The building official is authorized to suspend or revoke a permit issued, if the permit was issued ______________ A) in error B) on the basis of incorrect, inaccurate or imcomplete information C) in violation of any ordinance,regulation or provision of this code D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C What portions of the means of egress must the construction documents show? A) location B) construction C) size D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The construction documents must designate the number of occupants to be accommodated on every floor and in all rooms and spaces, except in occupancy A) R-2 B) A-1 C) F-1 D) M - Answer: D) R-2 The construction documents must provide details of the exterior wall envelope, including____________________ A) flashing B) means of drainage C) water-resistive membrane D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Construction documents submitted with the permit application, must be accompanied by a site plan that shows the ___________________ to scale A) size of new construction B) location of new construction C) existing structures on the site D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The building official must examine submittal documents and determine, upon examination, whether the construction indicated and described is in accordance with the requirements of A) this code B) other pertinent laws C) other ordinances D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The construction documents approved by the building official, must be approved in writing or by stamp, stating ________________ A) reviewed for code compliance B) approved for code compliance C) reviewed by state D) approved by state - Answer: A) reviewed for code compliance When the B.O issues a permit, one set of the reviewed construction documents must be retained by the building official and the other must be kept at _________ by the applicant A) business office B) site of work C) home D) county recorder's office - Answer: B) site of work The code must not require changes in construction documents, construction or designated occupancy of a structure for which a lawful permit has already been issued A) True B) False - Answer: A) True The B.O can authorize a permit for the construction of part of a building before the construction documents for the whole building have been submitted A) True B) False - Answer: A)True The B.O is authorized to require the owner to engage and designate, on the building permit application, a ___________ who must act as the registered design professional in responsible charge A) registered design professional B) general contractor C) code compliance engineer D) civil engineer - Answer: A) registered design professional The B.O must approve of any deferral submittal items prior to their installation A)True B)False - Answer: A) True A permit for temporary structures must be limited to time of service, and must not exceed _____ days A) 30 B) 90 C) 180 D) 270 - Answer: 180 A permit is invalid if the fees are not paid A) True B) False - Answer: A) True A fee must be paid for each required permit A) True B) False - Answer: A) True The B.O has the authority to establish a refund policy A) True B) False - Answer: A) True Construction or work that requires a permit must ________ A) be subject to inspection by the B.O B) remain accessible until approved C) remain exposed for inspection purposes until approved D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The B.O is authorized to examine buildings, structures and site for which an application has been filed before he issues a permit A) True B) False - Answer: A) True If an inspection is req'd in a building located in a flood hazard area documentation of the elevation of the ______ floor must be submitted to the B.O prior to the final inspection A) lowest B) highest C) all floors D) not req'd - Answer: A) lowest Protection of joints and penetrations in ______ must remain unconcealed until inspected and approved A) fire-resistance-rated assemblies B) smoke barriers C) smoke partitions D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The B.O is not authorized to accept reports of approved inspection agencies A) True B) False - Answer: B) False It is the duty of the permit holder to ____________ A) notify the B.O when work is ready for inspection B) provide access to work to be inspected C) provide means of inspection D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C If upon inspection, the B.O finds any portions of the work to be noncompliant, those portions must be corrected and remain____________ until authorized by the B.O A) uncovered B) unconcealed C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A or B A building or structure must not be used until the B.O has issued a C.O A) True B) False - Answer: A) True Work exempt from permits also require a C.O A)True B) False - Answer: B) False The C.O, issued by the B.O includes ____________________________ A) building permit number B) address of structure C) name of the owner's authorized agent D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C How many days is a temporary C.O valid? A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) varies depending on the time period set by the B.O - Answer: D) varies depending on the time period set by the B.O The B.O has the authority to suspend or revoke a C.O if the certificate was issued ___________________________ A) in error B) on the basis of incorrect, inaccurate or incomplete information C) in violation of any ordinance, regulation or provision of this code D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C A person must not make connections from a __________ to a building for which a permit is req'd, until the B.O allows it A) utility B) source of energy C) power D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The B.O has the authority to authorize temporary connection of the building to the ________________ A) power B) source of energy C) fuel D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The B.O has the authority to authorize disconnection of utility service to a building regulated by this code _________________________ A) in emergencies, to eliminate an immediate hazard to life or property B) where the utility connection was made without approval C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A & B In order to hear and decide appeals of ____________________________ made by the B.O relative to the application and interpretation of this code, there must be a board of appeals A) orders B) decisions C) determinations D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C An application for an appeal of a decision made by the B.O must be based on a claim that the true intent of this code or the rules legally adopted ________________________ A) have been incorrectly interpreted B) do not fully apply C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A & B The board of appeals has the authority to waive requirements of this code A) True B) False - Answer: B) False It is unlawful for any person, firm or corporation to ___________ a building in conflict with or in violation of any of the provisions of this code A) erect B) extend C) demolish D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C The B.O has the authority to issue a stop work order, when work regulated by this code is being performed in a manner that is ____________ A) non-compliant B) dangerous C) unsafe D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Any person who continues work after having been served with a stop work order is subject to penalties as prescribed by the law A) True B) False - Answer: A) True Structures or existing equipment that involve ______________ are considered unsafe A) illegal occupancy B) improper occupancy C) inadequate maintenance D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Which of the following is a habitable space? A) bathroom B) kitchen C) halls D) closet - Answer: B) kitchen An occupiable space must have A) means of egress B) ventilation C) light D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C A story that is portion of a building included between the upper surface of a floor and the upper surface of the floor or roof next above A) True B) False - Answer: A) True A story is measured as the ___________ distance from top to top of 2 successive tiers or beams of finished floor surfaces A) horizontal B) vertical C) diagonal D) A through C - Answer: B) vertical There are __________ classes of vapor retarders A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 - Answer: B) 3 Which of the following, by definition, bounded on 3 or more sides A) yard B) court C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: B) court A dwelling unit is defined as a single unit providing complete, independent living facilities for one or more persons, including permanent provisions for _________________ A) living B) sleeping C) sanitation D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Ch 3 Use and Occupancy Which of the following occupancies include the use of a building for the gathering of persons for purpose of civic, social or religious functions? A) Group A B) Group B C) Group C D) Group R - Answer: A) Group A A building or tenant space that is used for assembly purposes and has an occupant load of less than ______________ must be classified as a Group B occupancy A) 25 persons B) 50 persons C) 75 pesons D) 100 persons - Answer: B) 50 persons A room or space that is used for assembly purposes, that is less than ________________________ in area and that is accessory to another occupancy must be classified as a Group B occupancy A) 350 sq ft B) 550 sq ft C) 750 sq ft D) 950 sq ft - Answer: C) 750 sq ft Accessory religious educational rooms and religious auditoriums with occupant loads of less than ______ per room or space are not considered separate occupancies A) 50 B) 100 C) 150 D) 200 - Answer: B) 100 Which of the following Group A occupancies include assembly uses, usually with fixed seating intended for the production and viewing of the performing arts or motion pictures A) Group A-1 B) Group A-2 C) Group A-3 D) Group A-4 - Answer: A) Group A-1 Which of the following Group A occupancies include assembly uses, intended for food and/or drink consumption? A) Group A-1 B) Group A-2 C) Group A-3 D) Group A-4 - Answer: B) Group A-2 Which of the following Group A occupancies include assembly uses, intended for worship, recreation or amusement and other assembly uses not classified elsewhere in Group A? A) Group A-2 B) Group A-3 C) Group A-4 D) Group A-5 - Answer: B) Group A-3 Which of the following Group A occupancies include assembly uses, intended for viewing activities with spectator seating? A) Group A-2 B) Group A-3 C) Group A-4 D) Group A-5 - Answer: C) Group A-4 Which of the following Group A occupancies include assembly uses, intended for viewing outdoor activities? A) Group A-3 B) Group A-4 C) Group A-5 D) Group A-6 - Answer: C) Group A-5 Which of the following occupancies include the use of a building or structure for office, professional or service-type transactions, including storage of records and account? A) Group B B) Group E C) Group F D) Group H - Answer: A) Group B A building or structure, used by 6 or more persons at any time for educational purposes (through 12th grade) must be classified as a ________________ occupancy A) Group B B) Group E C) Group F D) Group H - Answer: B) Group E Buildings or structures occupied by more than _________ children older than 2-1/2 years of age who receive educational, supervision or personal care for fewer than 24 hours per day are considered Group E occupancies A) 3 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12 - Answer: B) 5 A facility within a Group E occupancy, where ____________ or fewer children receive day care must be classified as a Group E occupancy A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10 - Answer: C) 5 A facility within a dwelling unit where 5 or fewer children receive day care must be classified as a _________ occupancy A) Group E B) Group R-3 C) Group B D) Group A-3 - Answer: B) Group R-3 Which of the following occupancies includes the use of a building or structure for assembling, disassembling, fabricating, finishing, manufacturing, packaging, repair or processing operations? A) Group F B) Group H C) Group S D) Group M - Answer: A) Group F A building used for factory industrial, moderate hazard purposes is classified as a Group ___ occupancy A) F-1 B) F-2 C) M-H D) H - Answer: A) F-1 A building used for factory industrial, low hazard purposes is classified as a Group ___ occupancy A) Group F-1 B) F-2 C) L-H D) H - Answer: B) F-2 Which of the following occupancies include the use of a building for manufacturing, processing, generation of storage of materials that constitute a physical or health hazard in quantities in excess of those allowed in Group control areas A) Group F-1 B) Group F-2 C) Group H D) Group M - Answer: C) Group H How many groups are hazardous occupancies classified into? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 - Answer: D) 5 A closed system is the use of a __________ hazardous material involving a closed vessel A) solid B) liquid C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A & B Combustible dust is finely divided soil material that is _____________ microns or less in diameter and which, when dispersed in air in the proper proportions, could be ignited by a flame, spark or other source of ignition A) 280 B) 360 C) 420 D) 580 - Answer: C) 420 Aerosol products classified by means of the calculation of their chemical heats of combustion and designated one of ________ levels A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: C) 3 Buildings and structures that contain material that pose a detonation hazard are classified as A) Group H-1 B) Group H-2 C) Group H-3 D) Group H-4 - Answer: A) Group H-1 Buildings and structures that contain material that pose a deflagration hazard or a hazard from accelerated burning are classified as ___________ A) Group H-1 B) Group H-2 C) Group H-3 D) Group H-4 - Answer: B) Group H-2 Buildings and structures that contain materials that readily support combustion or that pose a physical hazard are classified as _____ A) Group H-2 B) Group H-3 C) Group H-4 D) Group H-5 - Answer: B) Group H-3 Buildings and structures that contain materials that are health hazards are classisifed as _______ A) Group H-2 B) Group H-3 C) Group H-4 D) Group H-5 - Answer: C) Group H-4 Facilities that fabricate semiconductors are classified as __________ occupancies A) Group H-2 B) Group H-3 C) Group H-4 D) Group H-5 - Answer: D) Group H-5 A ___________ occupancy includes the use of a building or structure, or a portion thereof, for care or supervision of persons who are not capable of self-preservation without physical assistance A) Group B B) Group E C) Group I D) Group M - Answer: C) Group I Buildings or structures that house persons detained for penal or correctional purposes, also fall under Group ___ A) B B) E C) I D) M - Answer: C) Group I An institutional Group ________ occupancy included buildings where more than 16 persons reside on a 24 hr basis in a supervised environment and receive custodial care A) I-1 B) 1-2 C) 1-3 D) 1-4 - Answer: A) I-1 Which of the following is classified as a Group I-1 occupancy A) Hospitals B) Correctional Centers C) Social Rehabilitation Facilities D) Adult Day Care - Answer: C) Social Rehabilitation Facilities A facility housing 5 or fewer persons receiving custodial care is classified as __________ occupancy A) Group I-2 B) Group I-3 C) Group R-3 D) Group R-4 - Answer: C) Group R-3 An institutional ___________ occupancy includes buildings that are used for medical care on a 24 hr basis for more than 5 persons who are incapable of self-preservation A) Group I-1 B) Group I-2 C) Group I-3 D) Group I-4 - Answer: B) Group I-2 An institutional ______________ occupancy includes buildings that are inhabited by more than 5 persons who are under restraint or security A) Group I-1 B) Group I-2 C) Group I-3 D) Group I-4 - Answer: C) Group I-3 A prison is an example of a ___________ occupancy A) Group I-1 B) Group Group I-2 C) Group I-3 D) Group I-4 - Answer: C) Group I-3 An institutional __________ includes buildings that are occupied by more than 5 persons, of any age, who receive custodial care for fewer than 24 hrs per day A) Group I-1 B) Group I-2 C) Group I-3 D) Group I-4 - Answer: D) Group I-4 A _________ occupancy includes buildings used for the display and sale of merchandise A) Group B B) Group M C) Group R D) Group S - Answer: B) Group M Buildings, structures or portions thereof that are used for sleeping purposes are classified as ____________ occupancies when they are not classified as a Group I occupancies A) Group B B) Group M C) Group R D) Group S - Answer: C) Group R Which of the following residential occupancies contains sleeping units that are for occupants who are primarily transient in nature? A) Group R-1 B) Group R-2 C) Group R-3 D) Group R-4 - Answer: A) Group R-1 Which of the following residential occupancies contains sleeping units that are for occupants who are primarily permanent in nature? A) Group R-1 B) Group R-2 C) Group R-3 D) Group R-4 - Answer: B) Group R-2 Which of the following is classified as a Residential Group R-3 occupancy? A) Buildings that don't contain more than 2 dwelling units B) Boarding houses (transient) with 10 or fewer occupants C) Lodging houses with 5 or fewer guest rooms D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Non-transient boarding houses with __________ or fewer occupants are classified as Residential Group R-3 A) 10 B) 16 C) 20 D) 24 - Answer: B) 16 A residential ____________ occupancy includes buildings used by more than 5 persons (16 max) who reside on a 24 hr basis in a supervised residential environment and receive custodial care A) Group I-2 B) Group I-3 C) Group R-3 D) Group R-4 - Answer: D) Group R-4 Group R-4 occupancies must meet the construction requirements of _____________ occupancies A) Group I-2 B) Group I-3 C) Group R-2 D) Group R-3 - Answer: D) Group R-3 A____________ occupancy includes the use of a building for storage that is not classified as a hazardous occupancy A) Group H B) Group M C) Group S D) Group U - Answer: C) Group S A moderate-hazard storage is classified as a _____________ occupancy A) Group H B) Group S-1 C) Group S-2 D) Group S-3 - Answer: B) Group S-1 A low-hazard storage is classified as a _____________ occupancy A) Group H B) Group S-1 C) Group S-2 D) Group S-3 - Answer: C) Group S-2 Group U occupancies include A) carports B) sheds C) greenhouses D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C Which of the following is not a Group A occupancy A) restaurant B) church C) school D) courtroom - Answer: C) school 50.) A casino is considered a __________________ occupancy A) Group A-1 B) Group A-2 C) Group A-3 D) Group A-4 - Answer: B) Group A-2 A motion picture theatre is considered a _____________ occupancy A) Group A-1 B) Group A-2 C) Group A-3 D) Group A-4 - Answer: A) Group A-1 A place intended for religious worship, such as a church, is an example of a ______________ occupancy A) Group A-2 B) Group A-3 C) Group A-4 D) Group A-5 - Answer: B) Group A-3 Tennis courts with spectator seating are classified as ___________ occupancies A) Group A-2 B) Group A-3 C) Group A-4 D) Group A-5 - Answer: C) Group A-4 Stadiums are classified as ________________ occupancies A) Group A-2 B) Group A-3 C) Group A-4 D) Group A-5 - Answer: D) Group A-5 Which of the following is a Group B occupancy? A) bank B) post office C) clinic, outpatient D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C A building used by 6 or more persons at a time for educational purposes (through 12th grade) is considered a ______________ occupancy A) Group A B) Group B C) Group E D) Group I - Answer: C) Group E Factories used for textile-manufacturing are classified as ___________ occupancies A) F-1 B) F-2 C) F-3 D) M - Answer: A) F-1 Buildings used for the fabrication and manufacturing of metal products is classified as a ______________ occupancy A) F-1 B) F-2 C) F-3 D) M - Answer: B) F-2 Buildings, where _______ or more persons (excluding staff) reside on a 24 hr basis in a supervised environment and receive custodial care is classified as a Group I-1 A) 10 B) 12 C) 16 D) 24 - Answer: C) 16 60. A building used for medical care on a 24 hr basis for more than _______ persons who are incapable of self-preservation is classified as a Group I-2 occupancy A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12 - Answer: B) 5 A building occupied by more than _______ persons (of any age) who receive custodial care for fewer than 24 hrs a day, is classified as a Group I-4 occupancy A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10 - Answer: C) 5 Institutional Group I-4 occupied by more than ____ persons (of any age) who receive custodial care for fewer than 24 hrs a day A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 - Answer: A) 5 A motor fuel-dispensing facility is classified as a ______________ occupancy A) Group B B) Group M C) Group R D) Group S - Answer: B) Group M A transient hotel is a ____________ occupancy A) Group R-1 B) Group R-2 C) Group R-3 D) Group-4 - Answer: A) Group R-1 Apartment houses containing more than one __________ dwelling units are considered a Group R-2 occupancy A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10 - Answer: B) 2 Congregate living facilities (non transient) with ______ or fewer occupants are classified as Group R-3 A) 5 B) 10 C) 16 D) 18 - Answer: C) 16 Ch 4 Special Detailed Requirements Based On Use And Occupancy 1) The provisions of _________ apply to the special uses and occupancies described herein A) Ch 1 B) Ch 2 C) Ch 3 D) Ch 4 - Answer: D) Ch 4 2) An ______________ is an exterior perimeter building of a group other than H having direct access to a covered or open mall building but having req'd means of egress independent of the mall A) anchor building B) covered mall building C) detached building D) dwelling building - Answer: A) anchor building 3) Fire-resistance-rated separation is not req'd between tenant spaces and the mall A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 4) Fire-resistance-rated separation is not req'd between a food court and adjacent tenant places or the mall A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 5) In a covered mall building, an attached garage storing passenger vehicles for a max, of 9 persons, is considered a separate building if it is separated from the covered mall building by a minimum of ___ hour fire barriers A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: B) 2 6) In a covered mall, the horizontal separation between kiosks and other structures within the mall must be a minimum of ______ feet A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 - Answer: B) 20 7) In a covered mall building, each kiosk must have a max area of _______ sq ft A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400 - Answer: C) 300 8) In covered mall buildings, a plastic sign must be a max of ___ % of the wall area facing the mall A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 - Answer: B) 20% 9) In covered mall buildings, a vertical plastic sign must be a max of ____ inches in height A) 48 B) 60 C) 72 D) 96 - Answer: D) 96" 10) In covered malls, plastic signs must be located a min. of _____ inches from adjacent tenants A) 12 B) 14 C) 16 D) 18 - Answer: D) 18" 11) The aggregate clear egress of a covered or open mall building must be a min of _____ A) 25,000 B) 50,000 C) 75,000 D) 100,000 - Answer: B) 50,000 12) The aggregate clear egress of a mall in either a covered or open mall building must be a min of _____ ft A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 30 - Answer: C) 20 ft 13) In covered or open mall buildings, no portion of the min. req'd aggregate width must be less than ______ ft measured to a height of 8' between any projection of a tenant space bordering the mall and any obstruction to means of egress travel A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 30 - Answer: B) 10 ft 14) The means of egress req'd in covered and open malls is determined by ___________ A) gross leasable area B) occupant load factor C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A & B 15) In a covered or open mall building, the occupant load factor (OLF) range is ________ A) 10-30 B) 30-50 C) 50-70 D) 70-90 - Answer: B) 30-50 16) When determining the means of egress of a covered or open mall building, the food court occupant load must be ________ the occupant load of the building A) added to B) subtracted from C) multiplied by D) divided by - Answer: A) added to 17) A min. of 2 means of egress must be provided, whenever the distance of travel to the mall from any location within a tenant space is greater than ____________ feet A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100 - Answer: C) 75 ft 18) Assembly occupancies with an occupant load of _______ or more located within a covered mall building must be located so that their entrances are immediately adjacent to a principal entrance to the mall A) 100 B) 300 C) 500 D) 700 - Answer: C) 500 19) The req'd means of egress for anchor buildings must be provided independently from the mall means of egress system A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 20) A mall that terminates at an achor building where no other means of egress is provided is considered a dead-end mall A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 21) In a covered or open mall building, the distance of travel from any point in a tenant space to an exit or entrance to the mall must not be greater than ____ feet A)50 B) 100 C) 150 D) 200 - Answer: D) 200 22) Exit passageways or corridors in covered and open mall buildings must be a min, of _________ inches A) 32 B) 50 C) 66 D) 75 - Answer: C) 66 23) In a covered mall building, mechanical rooms are permitted to open directly into exit passageways, provided the exit passageway is separated from such rooms with a ______ hr min. fire barriers A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: A) 1 hour 24) A high-rise building, is a building with an occupied floor located more than ___________ ft above the lowest level of fire dept vehicle access A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100 - Answer: C) 75 25) The req'd fire-resistance rating of the fire barriers enclosing vertical shafts, in high rise buildings a max of _______ feet in height, is permitted to be reduced to 1 hour if automatic sprinklers are installed within the shafts A) 320 B) 420 C) 530 D) 640 - Answer: B) 420 feet 26) A high-rise building up to __________ feet in height must have a minimum bond strength of 430 psf A) 240 B) 360 C) 420 D) 580 - Answer: C) 420 ft 27) If the standby or emergency power system, in a high-rise building, including a generator set inside a building, the system must be located in a separate room encosed with _______ hour fire barriers A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: B) 2 hour 28) Interior exit stairways that serve floors more than ____ feet above the lowest level of fire dept vehicle access, must be a smokeproof enclosure A) 50 B) 75 C) 100 D) 150 - Answer: B) 75 feet 29) An _______ is opening connecting 2 or more stories other than enclosed stairways, elevators, hoistways, escalators, plumbing, electrical, air-conditioning or other equipmentm which is closed at the top and not defined as a mall A) atrium B) scupper C) direct access opening D) emergency escape and rescue opening - Answer: A) atrium 30) A ___ hour fire barrier must separate atrium spaces from adjacent spaces A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: A) 1 hour 31) A fire barrier is not req'd where _________________________________ A) glass wall forming a smoke partition is provided B) a glass-block wall having a 3/4 hr fire protection rating is provided C) between the atrium and the adjoining spaces ofr any 3 floors of the atrium D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 32) The interior finish of walls and ceilings of atrium must be a minimum of Class ___ A) A B) B C) C D) D - Answer: B) Class B 33) Where the path of egress travel is not at the level of exit discharge from the atrium, that portion of the total permitted exit access travel distance that occurs within the atrium must be a max of ____ feet A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400 - Answer: B) 200 feet 34) A building that has a floor level more than ____ feet below the finished floor of the lowest level of exit discharge must be divided into a minimum of 2 compartments of approx. equal size A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80 - Answer: C) 60 feet 35) Stairways that serve a floor level that is more than ______ feet below the finished floor of its level exit discharge must comply with the requirements for a smokeproof enclosure A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 - Answer: B) 30 feet 36) Each private garage in motor-vehicle-related occupancies must be a max of ___ sq ft in area A) 1,000 B) 2,000 C) 3,000 D) 4,000 - Answer: A) 1,000 sq ft 37) In motor-vehicle-related occupancies, private garages and carports must have a minimum clear height of ___ feet in vehicle and pedestrian traffic areas A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 - Answer: A) 7 feet 38) In motor-vehicle-related occupancies, garage floor surfaces must be ____________ A) of approved noncombustible material B) sloped to facilitate the movement of liquids C) sloped to a drain or toward the main vehicle entry doorway D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 39) In motor-vehicle-related occupancies, vehicle barriers must be placed where the vertical distance from the floor of a drive lane or parking space to the ground or surface directly below is greater than ____ ft A) 1 foot B) 2 ft C) 3 ft D) 4 ft - Answer: A) 1 foot 40) In motor-vehicle-related occupancies, parking garages must not open directly into a room used for sleeping purposes A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 41) To provide natural ventilation, the exterior side of an open parking garage structure in a motor-vehicle-related occupancy must have uniformly distributed openings on ___ or more sides A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: B) 2 42) The area of the openings in exterior walls on a tier in open parking garages, must not be less than ___% of the total perimeter wall area of each tier A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 - Answer: B) 20 43) To provide natural ventilation, the exterior side of an open parking garage structure in a motor-vehicle-related occupancy, must have uniformly distributed openings a min. of ___ % of the total perimeter wall area of each tier A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 - Answer: B) 20% 44) Where openings below grade provide req'd natural ventilation, in motor-vehicle-related occupancies, the outside horizontal clear space must be ___ times the depth of the opening A) 1- 1/2 B) 2 C) 2-1/2 D) 3 - Answer: A) 1-1/2 45) What is the max number of tiers permitted in a ramp-accessed, single-use, open parking garage of Type IIA construction? A) 4 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12 - Answer: C) 10 46) An open parking garage of Type IIA construction must have an area of ____ sq ft per tier A) 10,000 B) 30,000 C) 50,000 D) 70,000 - Answer: C) 50,000 47) The clear height of a parking tier in an open parking garage, must be a min. of ____ feet A) 7 B) 9 C) 12 D) 15 - Answer: A) 7 feet 48) In motor-vehicle-related occupancies, canopies under which fuels are dispensed must have a clear, unobstructed height of ________ to the lowest projecting element in the vehicle drive-through area A) 12' B) 12' 6" C) 13' D) 13' 6" - Answer: D) 13' 6" 49) Combustible materials used in or on a canopy in motor-vehicle-related occupancies, must be shielded by ______________ A) a noncombustible element B) wood of Type IV sizes C) corrosion-resistant steel D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 50) The ventilation system in repair garages must be controlled at the entrance to the garage A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 51) Repair garage floors in motor-vehicle-related occupancies, must not be of concrete A) True B) False - Answer: B) False 52) In Group I-2 occupancies, spaces for care providers, including ____ are permitted to be open to the corridor A) charting spaces B) communications space C) clerical spaces D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 53) In Group I-2 occupancies, gift shops that are less than _____ sq ft in area are permitted to be open to the corridor A) 100 B) 300 C) 500 D) 700 - Answer: C) 500 sq ft 54) Smoke barriers must be provided in Group I-2 occupancies to subdivide every story used by persons ___________ A) receiving care B) receiving treatment C) sleeping D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 55) Smoke barriers must be provided to divide stories ( other than those for receiving care, treatment and sleeping ) in Group I-2 with an occupant load of ______ or more persons, into no fewer than 2 smoke compartments A) 10 B) 20 C) 50 D) 100 - Answer: C) 50 56) Refuge areas in smoke barriers in Group I-2 occupancies must have a min. of ______________ net sq ft for each care recipient confined to bed or stretcher A) 10 B) 30 C) 50 D) 70 - Answer: B) 30 net sq ft 57) Doors to resident sleeping units in Group I-3 occupancies must have a min. clear width of _____ inches A) 24 B) 28 C) 32 D) 48 - Answer: B) 28 inches 58) In Group I-3 occupancies, smoke barriers must be provided to divide stories having an occupant load of ___ or more persons, into no fewer than 2 smoke compartments A) 10 B) 30 C) 50 D) 70 - Answer: C) 50 59) In Group I-3 occupancies, the max number of residents in any smoke compartment must be _____ A) 50 B) 100 C) 150 D) 200 - Answer: D) 200 60) In Group I-3 occupancies, the distance of travel to a door in a smoke barrier from any room door req'd as exit access must not be greater than ____ feet A) 50 B) 100 C) 150 D) 200 - Answer: C) 150 feet 61) Motion picture projection rooms must have a min floor area of __________ sq ft for a single machine A) 40 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120 - Answer: B) 80 sq ft 62) In stages, platforms and technical production areas, a temporary platform can be installed for a period not exceeding _______ days A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 120 - Answer: A) 30 days 63) Where the stage height is greater than _____ feet, a proscenium wall must completely separate all portions of the stage from the seating area A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 - Answer: D) 50 feet 64) Stages with a floor area larger than ____ sq ft must be provided with emergency ventilation A) 100 B) 500 C) 1,000 D) 2,000 - Answer: C) 1,000 sq ft 65) Where permanent platforms are ______ inches max. above the main floor, they are permitted to be constructed of fire-retardant-treated wood types for Types I, II, and IV construction A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 50 - Answer: C) 30 inches 66) If the space beneath the permanent platform is used for storage, the floor assembly must have a min. fire-resistance-rated construction of ____ hour A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: A) 1 hour 67) ______________ must separate stages from dressing rooms, scene docks, property rooms, workshops and storerooms A) fire barriers B) horizontal assemblies C) Either A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Either A & B 68) Stages that have a height greater than 50' must have fire-resistance rating of _______ hour(s) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: B) 2 hours 69) Dressing rooms, scene docks, peoperty rooms, workshops, storerooms and compartments that are part of a stage, must be separated from each other by a min. of ________ hour(s) fire barriers A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: A) 1 hour 70) What is the req'd interior finish classification for a special amusement building? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D - Answer: A) Class A 71) In aircraft-related occupancies, exterior walls that are located less than ____ feet from lot lines or a public way must have a min. fire-resistance rating of 2 hours A) 25 B) 35 C) 45 D) 55 - Answer: B) 35 feet 72) In aircraft-related occupancies, exterior walls that are located less than _____ feet from lot lines or a public way must have a min. fire-resistance rating of 2 hours A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 - Answer: C) 30 feet 73) In aircraft-related occupancies, an aircraft hangar of Type IA construction can be classified a Group II for fire suppression purposes, so long as the hangar has a max single fire area size of ____________ sq ft A) 10,000 B) 20,000 C) 30,000 D) 40,000 - Answer: D) 40,000 sq ft 74) In aircraft-related occupancies, an aircraft hangar of Type IIB construction can be classified a Group III for fire suppression purposes, so long as the hangar has a max single fire area size of ___ sq ft A) 10,000 B) 12,000 C) 14,000 D) 16,000 - Answer: B) 12,000 sq ft 75) Attics used for storing combustible materials must be protected on the storage side as req'd for __ hour fire-resistance-rated construction A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: A) 1 hour 76) What is the max number of control areas permitted in the first floor above grade plane of a hazardous material building A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: D) 4 77) The floor assembly of the control area and the construction supporting the floor of the control area, in occupancies storing hazardous materials, must have a min fire-resistance rating of ______ hour(s) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: B) 2 hours 78) Where the outdoor storage of hazardous materials are protected from the weather using an overhead structure, the overhead structure must have a max of ____ sq ft A) 500 B) 1,000 C) 1,500 D) 2,000 - Answer: C) 1,500 sq ft 79) In Groups H-2 & H-3, a min. of ___ % of the perimeter wall of the occupancy must be an exterior wall A) 15 B) 25 C) 35 D) 45 - Answer: B) 25% 80) Where the area of the Group H-2 occupancy is greater than 1,000 sq ft and it is not req'd to be located in a detached building, it must be set back a min. of ___ feet A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 - Answer: C) 30 feet 81) Where a detached building is req'd, Group H-2 and H-3 occupancies must be set back a min. of _________ feet A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 - Answer: D) 50 feet 82) In a Group H-5 occupancy, the distance of travel from any point in a service corridor or door into a fabrication area must be a max of _____ feet A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100 - Answer: C) 75 feet 83) In a Group H-5 occupancy, the clear width of a service corridor must be a min. of 5 ft or ________ inches wider than the widest cart or truck used in the service corridor, whichever is greater A) 33" B) 36" C) 48" D) 52" - Answer: A) 33" 84) In a Group H-5 occupancy, HPM rooms and gas rooms must be separated from other areas by the fire barriers with a min. fire-resistance rating of ___ hour(s) where the area is 300 sq ft or more A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: B) 2 hours 85) In a Group H-5 occupancy, where the largest cross-sectional diameter of a combustible nonmetallic exhaust duct is equal to or greater than _______ inches automatic sprinkler system protection must be provided A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20 - Answer: C) 10 inches 86) In a Group H-5 occupancy, sprinkler systems must be installed at _______ foot intervals in horizontal ducts A) 10 B) 12 C) 16 D) 22 - Answer: B) 12 foot 87) Spray rooms must be enclosed with fire barriers a min of ____________ hour(s) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: A) 1 hour 88) Overhead heating pipes, must have a min. clearance of ______ inches from combustible contents in the dryer A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 - Answer: A) 2 inches 89) Metal enclosures must be insulated from adjacent combustible materials a min of _____ inches of airspace, where the operating temperatures of the dryer is 175*F or more A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 - Answer: D) 12 inches 90) Nitrocellulose storage must be located on a detached pad or in a separate structure or a room enclosed with fire barriers, a min. of _____ hour A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: B) 2 hour 91) In groups I-1 occupancies, walls separating ________________ must be constructed as fire partitions A) dwelling units in the same building B) sleeping units in the same building C) dwelling or sleeping units from other occupancies contiguous to them in the same building D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 92) Smoke barriers must be provided in Group I-1, Condition 2, to subdivide every story that is used by persons to _______ A) receive care B) receive treatment C) sleep D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 93) In hydrogen fuel gas rooms, the flammable gas detection system must be designed to activate when the level of flammable gas exceeds ____ % of the lower flammability limit (LFL) for the gas or mixture present at their anticipated temperature and pressure A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100 - Answer: A) 25% 94) Ambulatory care facilities must be separated from adjacent spaces, corridors or tenants with a fire partition where the potential for ___ or more care recipients are to be incapable of self-preservation at any time A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 - Answer: B) 4 95) Where the aggregate area of an ambulatory care facility is greater than _______ sq ft on a story, the story must be provided with a smoke barrier to subdivide it into a min. of 2 smoke compartments A) 1,000 B) 5,000 C) 10,000 D) 15,000 - Answer: C) 10,000 96) In ambulatory care facilities, the distance of travel from any point in a smoke compartment to a smoke barrier door must not be greater than _______ ft A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 500 - Answer: B) 200 97) A min. of _____ net sq ft must be provided for each nonambulatory care recipient within the care recipient rooms and other low-hazard areas within each smoke compartment A) 10 B) 20 c) 30 d) 50 - Answer: c) 30 98) Children's play structures that exceed ________ ft in height and 150 sq ft in area must comply with Sections 424.2 through 424.5 in the IBC code A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 - Answer: B) 10 ft 99) Children's play structures must be constructed of noncombustible materials A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 100) Children's play structures must be provided with the same level approved fire suppression and detection devices as the occupancy they're part of A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 101) Children's play structures must have a min. horizontal separation of _____ ft from building walls A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12 - Answer: B) 5 ft 102 Children's play structures must have a min. horizontal separation of _____ ft from other children's play structures A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 - Answer: D) 20 103) Children's play structures must have a max. area of _______ sq ft A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400 - Answer: C) 300 sq ft Chapter 5 General Building Heights & Areas 1) ____________ buildings must be provided with approved address identification that is legible and placed in a position that is visible from the street or road fronting property A) New B) Existing C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A & B 2) Which of the following statements are true regarding address identification? A) Characters must contrast with their background B) Arabic numbers or alphabetical letters must be used C) Numbers must not be spelled out D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 3) What is the min. height, in inches, of address identification characters? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 - Answer: B) 4 inches 4) What is the min. stroke width, in inches, of address identification characters? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/4 D) 1 - Answer: B) 1/2 inch 5) The fire code official can require address identification to be provided in additional approved locations A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 6) A ___________ must be used to identify a structure that cannot be accessed by means of a private road and the building address cannot be viewed from the public way A) monument B) pole C) other approved sign or means D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 7) Which of the following is the area included within surrounding exterior walls exclusive of vent shafts and courts? A) atrium B) building area C) court D) exhausted enclosure - Answer: B) building area 8) The ___________ is the vertical distance from grade plane to the average height of hte highest roof surface A) building height B) building area C) court D) exhausted enclosure - Answer: A) building height 9) The grade plane is a reference plane representing the average of finished ground level adjoining the building at exterior walls A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 10) A ________ is that portion of a building included between the upper surface of a floor and the upper surface of the floor or roof nest above A) floor B) level C) surface D) story - Answer: D) story 11) A __________ is an intermediate level or levels between the floor and ceiling of any story A) atrium B) court C) mezzanine D) exhausted enclosure - Answer: C) mezzanine 12) Towers, spires, steeples and other roof structures made of combustible materials must not extend more than ____ ft above the allowable building height A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 - Answer: D) 20 13) What is the max allowable building height for a Type IB construction, Group A occupancy building equipped with an automatic sprinkler system? A) 120 ft B) 140ft C) 160 ft D) 180 ft - Answer: D) 180 ft 14) What is the max allowable building height, in feet, for a Type IIB construction in a Group I-2 occupancy? A) 55 B) 65 C) 75 D) 100 - Answer: A) 55 ft 15) What is the min. clear height above and below the mezzanine floor construction A) 5 ft B) 7 ft C) 9 ft D) 12 ft - Answer: B) 7 ft 16) The aggregate area of a mezzanine must not be greater than ___ of the floor area of the room in which it is located A) 1/3 B) 2/3 C) 1/4 D) 3/4 - Answer: A) 1/3 17) A mezzanine must be open and unobstructed to the room in which such mezzanine is located A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 18) Mezzanines are not req'd to be open to the room in which the mezzanines are located, so long as the occupant load of the aggregate area of the enclosed space is a max of ___ A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 - Answer: B) 10 19) Which of the following statements are true regarding equipment platforms? A) must not be considered as a portion of the floor below B) the area must not be included in determining the fire area C) must not be a part of any mezzanine D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 20) Mezzainnes or portions thereof are not req'd to be open to the room in which the mezzanines are located, so long as the aggregate floor area of the enclosed space is a max of ___% of the mezzanine A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 - Answer: A) 10% 21) The aggregate area of all equipment platforms within a room must not be greater than what fraction of the area of the room in which they are located? A) 1/4 B) 1/3 C) 1/2 D) 2/3 - Answer: D) 2/3 22) What is the allowable area for a Class A-1, Type IIB construction? A) 5,000 B) 6,500 C) 8,500 D) 10,000 - Answer: C) 8,500 23) In order to receive an area factor increase based on frontage, every building must adjoin or have access to a public way A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 24) In order to qualify for an area factor increase based on frontage, a building must have a min of _____% of its perimeter on a public way or open space A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 - Answer: D) 25% 25) To qualify for an area factor increase based on frontage, the public way or open space adjacent to the building perimeter must have a min distance (W) of 20' measured at right angles from the building face to ___________ A) the closest interior lot line B) the entire width of a street, alley or public way C) the exterior face of an adjacent building on the same property D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 26) The public ways or yards of 60' in width are permitted to be reduced to ___ ft in width A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 - Answer: C) 40 ft 27) In order to reduce the req'd open space surrounding certain unlimited area buildings from 60' to 40', the reduced width must be a max of ____ % of the perimeter of the building A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 90 - Answer: C) 75% 28) In order to reduce the req'd open space surrounding certain unlimited area buildings from 60' to 40', the exterior walls facing the reduced width must have a min fire-resistance rating of ___ hour(s) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: C) 3 hours 29) The area of a Group F-2 or S-2, nonsprinklered, one story building must not be limited where the building is surrounded and adjoined by public ways or yards a min of ________ feet in width A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80 - Answer: C) 60 ft 30) The area of a Group A-4 sprinklered, one-story building above grade plane of other than Type V construction, must not be limited where the building is provided with an automatic sprinkler system and is surrounded and adjoined by public ways or yards ___ ft min. in width A) 40 B) 60 C) 80 D) 100 - Answer: B) 60 ft 31) Group A-1 and A-2 occupancies are permitted within mixed ocupancy buildings of unlimited area, unless they are of Type ___ construction A) I B) III C) V D) VII - Answer: C) Type V 32) The area of Group B buildings (max of 2 stories above grade plane) must not be limited where the building is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system and is surrounded and adjoined by public ways or yards a min. of ________ feet in width A) 40 B) 60 C) 80 D) 100 - Answer: B) 60 ft 33) The area of a Group A-3 building (max of 1 story above grade plane) used as a place of religious worship or Type II construction, must not be limited so long as the building ______________________ A) does not have a stage other than a platform B) is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system C) is surrounded and adjoined by public ways or yards a min of 60' in width D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 34) The area of a Group A-3 gymnasium of Type III or IV construction, a max of 1 story above grade, is considered unlimited if the assembly floor is located at or within ___ inches of street or grade level and all exits A) 17 B) 19 C) 21 D) 23 - Answer: C) 21 inches 35) Group H-2, H-3 and H-4 occupancies are permitted in unlimited area buildings containing ______ occupancies A) Group F B) Group S C) Either A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Either A & B 36) Group H occupancies located in an unlimited aea building, must have a max aggregate floor area of __________% of the area of the building or the area limitations for the Group H occupancies A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 - Answer: B) 10% 37) The area of a Group H-2 aircraft paint hangar (max 1 story above grade plane) must not be limited where it is surroundeded and adjoined by public ways or yards that are a min width of _______ times the building height A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 1-1/4 D) 1-1/2 - Answer: D) 1-1/2 38) The area of a Group E building, a max of 1 story above grade plane, and of Type II construction, must not be limited if the building is surrounded and adjoined by public ways or yards a min of ___ feet in width A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 120 - Answer: B) 60 ft 39) The area of covered mall building, that is a max of ______ in height, can be unlimited A) 1 story B) 2 stories C) 3 stories D) 4 stories - Answer: C) 3 stories 40) In mix-use and occupancy buildings, aggregate accessory occupancies must not occupy more than __% of the floor area of the story in which they are located A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 - Answer: B) 10% 41) In mix-use and occupancy buildings, no separation is req'd between accessory occupancies and the main occupancy, unless they are _______ occupancies A) H-2 B) I-1 C) R-3 D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 42) Nonseparated occupancies shall be individually classified A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 43) In mix-use and occupancy buildings, no separation is req'd between nonseparated occupancies, except in ______ occupancies A) H-2 B) I-1 C) R-3 D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 44) In mix-use and occupancy buildings, separated occupancy buildings shall be individually classified A) True B) False - Answer: A) True 45) In each story of mix-use and occupancy buildings, the building area must be such that the sum of the ratios of the actual building area of each separated occupancy divided by the allowable building area of each separated occupancy must not exceed _____ A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: A) 1 46) What is the req'd separation between Group M and Group R occupancies if the building is equipped with a sprinkler system? A) 1 hr B) 2 hr C) 3 hr D) 4 hr - Answer: A) 1 hr 47) According to the special provisions in Ch 5, a building must be considered as separate and distinct for the purpose of determining _____________________ A) area limitations B) continuity of fire walls C) limitation of number of stories D) A through C - Answer: D) A through C 48) According to the special provisions in Ch 5, the building must be separated with a horizontal assembly having a min. fire-resistance rating of _____ hour(s) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: C) 3 hours 49) Where a _________ parking garage of Type I construction with grade entrance, is provided under Group R occupancy building, the number of stories to be used in determining the min. type of construction must be measured from the floor above such a parking lot A) Group I-3 B) Group M-1 C) Group R-1 D) Group S-2 - Answer: D) Group S-2 50) The height limitation for buildings of Type IIA construction in a Group R-1 occupancy, can be increased to 9-stories and 100 ft, if the building is separated from any other building on the lot and from lot lines by a min of ______ feet A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 - Answer: D) 50 ft Ch 6 Types Of Construction 1) Fire protection of structural members is not req'd, where every part of the roof construction is ___ ft or more above any floor immediately below A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 - Answer: D) 20 2) The fire-resistance rating of an exterior wall is determined based upon the ___________ A) fire separation distance of the exterior wall B) the story in which the wall is located C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A & B 3) Fire-resistance rating requirements for nonbearing, exterior walls in Group R occupancies must be a min of ___ hour(s) where the separation distance is less than 5 ft A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: A) 1 hr 4) Fire-resistance rating requirements for nonbearing, exterior walls in Group M occupancies must be a min of ___ hour(s) if the separation distance is less than 5 ft A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: B) 2 hours 5) A Type VB building, housing a Group A occupancy does not require a fire-resistance rating if the fire separation distance is _________________________________ A) 5 or greater but less than 20 B) 5 or greater but less than 30 C) 10 or greater but less than 20 D) 10 or greater but less than 30 - Answer: D) 10 or greater but less than 30 6) If there is a fire separation distance greater than _____ feet, no fire rating is req'd A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 - Answer: C) 30 ft 7) The min. fire-resistance rating req'd for interior partitions in Type IIB construction is _____ A) 0 hr B) 1 hr C) 2 hr D) 3 hr - Answer: A) 0 hr 8) The min fire-resistant rating req'd for exterior bearing walls in Type IB constructoin is _________ A) 1 hr B) 2 hr C) 3 hr D) no rating req'd - Answer: B) 2 hr 9) Heavy timber members are permitted to be used in lieu of ______ fire-resistance rated construction, in roof construction of all occupancies A) 1 hr B) 2 hr C) 3 hr D) no rating req'd - Answer: A) 1 hr 10) The min fire-resistance rating req'd for exterior bearing walls in Type IIA construction is _____________ A) 1 hr B) 2 hr C) 3 hr D) no rating req'd - Answer: A) 1 hr 11) Buildings that are to be erected, altered or extended in either height or area, must be classified as one of how many construction types A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 - Answer: C) 5 12) Which of the following types of construction is the type in which the building elements listed in Table 610 are of noncombustible materials A) Type I B) Type II C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B - Answer: C) Both A & B 13) Which of the following types of construction is the type in which the exterior walls are of noncombustible materials and the interior building elements are of any material permitted by this code A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV - Answer: C) Type III 14) Which of the following types of construction (Heavy Timber) is the type in which the exterior walls are of noncombustible materials and the interior building elements are of solid or laminated wood without concealed spaces? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV - Answer: D) Type IV 15) In Type IV construction, fire-retardant-treated wood framing must be permitted within the exterior wall assemblies with a ________ rating or less A) 1 hr B) 2 hr C) 3 hr D) 4 hr - Answer: B) 2 hr 16) In Type IV construction, cross-laminated timber must be permitted within exterior wall assemblies with a _____ hour rating or less A) 1 hr B) 2 hr C) 3 hr D) 4 hr - Answer: B) 2 hr 17) In Type IV construction, wood columns must be a min of _______ inches nominal A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 - Answer: D) 8 inches 18) In Type IV construction, wood beams and girders for floor framing must be a min of _____ inches nominal in width and a min of 10" nominal in depth A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 - Answer: C) 6 19) In Type IV construction, wood-frame or glued-laminated arches for roof construction, which spring from the floor line or from grade and do not support floor loads, must have members a min of __ inches nominal in width A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 - Answer: C) 6 inches 20) If the planks in sawn or glued-laminated plank floors in Type IV construction, are a min of 3" in thickness, they must be covered with a 1" nominal dimension, tongue-and-groove flooring, laid crosswise or diagonally and be of ________________ A) 15/32" wood structural panel B) 1/2" particleboard C) Either A or B D) Neither A or B - Answer: C) Either A or B 21) If the planks in sawn or glue-laminated plank floors in Type IV construction, are a min of 4" in width, they must be set on edge close together, be well spiked and be covered with ___________________ A) 15/32" wood structural panel B) 1/2" particleboard C) Either A or B D) Neither A or B - Answer: C) Either A or B 22) In Type IV construction, the lumber in sawn or glued laminated plank floors must not extend closer than ____ inch to walls A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/4 D) 1 - Answer: B) 1/2 inch 23) In Type IV construction, the cross-laminated timber in timber floors must be a min of ______ inch(es) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - Answer: D) 4 inches 24) In Type IV construction, roofs must be without concealed spaces and wood roof decks shall be sawn or glued laminated, splined or tongue-and-groove plank, a min in ______ inches nominal in thickness A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 - Answer: A) 2 inches 25) In Type ______ structural elements, exterior walls and interior walls can be of any material permitted by