Actual Questions and Answers
Expert-Verified explanation
This ACLS Certification Exam contains:
❖ The ACLS Certification Exam has passing score of 90%
❖ 50 Questions and Answers
❖ format set of multiple-choice
❖ Expert-Verified explanation
❖ Verified with trusted textbooks
,### 1. Cardiac monitoring of a patient in cardiac arrest reveals ventricular
fibrillation. In addition to high-quality CPR, what intervention should be a
priority for the team?
- **A)** Defibrillation.
- **B)** Insert an advanced airway.
- **C)** Initiate capnography.
- **D)** Perform a pulse check.
**Answer: A) Defibrillation.**
**Expert Explanation:** In cases of ventricular fibrillation, immediate
defibrillation is critical alongside high-quality CPR. The American Heart
Association (AHA) emphasizes that rapid defibrillation within 3 to 5 minutes
of onset significantly increases the likelihood of survival and favorable
neurological outcomes. CPR helps maintain blood flow, but defibrillation is
the definitive intervention (AHA Guidelines 2020).
---
### 2. A patient with suspected stroke arrives at the emergency department.
The patient is diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke and is a candidate for
fibrinolytic therapy. To achieve the best outcomes, this therapy should be
initiated within what time frame?
- **A)** Within 30 minutes of the patient's arrival.
- **B)** Within 1 hour of the patient's arrival.
- **C)** Within 2 hours of the patient's arrival.
- **D)** Within 3 hours of the patient's arrival.
**Answer: B) Within 1 hour of the patient's arrival.**
,**Expert Explanation:** For patients with acute ischemic stroke,
administering intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA)
within 1 hour of arrival is optimal, though it must be given within 3 hours
of the onset of symptoms. Prompt administration is correlated with
decreased morbidity and mortality (Sacco et al., "Guidelines for the
Management of Patients with Recent Transient Ischemic Attack or Ischemic
Stroke," Stroke).
---
### 3. A 35-year-old female patient's ECG is consistent with STEMI. The ECG
reveals a new ST-segment elevation at the J point in leads V2 and V3 of at
least which size?
- **A)** 0.10 mV
- **B)** 0.15 mV
- **C)** 0.2 mV
- **D)** 0.25 mV
**Answer: B) 0.15 mV.**
**Expert Explanation:** A diagnosis of STEMI includes a new ST-segment
elevation of at least 0.15 mV in leads V2 and V3. This elevation indicates
myocardial injury and necessitates urgent intervention, ideally cardiac
catheterization or thrombolytic therapy, to restore coronary blood flow
(ACCF/AHA Guidelines for the Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial
Infarction, 2013).
---
### 4. A 28-year-old pregnant patient presents to the emergency
department with complaints of feeling feverish and faint. The patient
deteriorates and goes into cardiac arrest. If available, what diagnostic tool
could be used to guide decision-making in her care?
, - **A)** Abdominal radiograph
- **B)** Fetal monitoring
- **C)** Point-of-care ultrasound
- **D)** Fetal echocardiogram
**Answer: C) Point-of-care ultrasound.**
**Expert Explanation:** Point-of-care ultrasound is crucial for evaluating
pregnancy status in emergencies, especially during resuscitation. It can
quickly assess gestational age and fetal viability without delaying
resuscitation efforts, thereby informing the care approach effectively
(Doran et al., "Emergency Ultrasound," Emergency Medicine Clinics of North
America).
---
### 5. An ECG strip reveals features indicating atrial fibrillation. Which
characteristic is most significant?
- **A)** Presence of flutter waves and sawtooth patterns.