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union county college > biology > BIOLOGY BIO 105-test bank Essentials of Human Anatomy and Physiology-detailed with 100% correct answers

BIOLOGY BIO 105-test bank Essentials of Human Anatomy and Physiology, 11e, (Marieb) Chapter 5 The Skeletal System (Multiple choices quiz, / Questions, Essay Questions) 5.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions Using Figure 5.1, identify the following: 1) The proximal epiphysis is represented by ________. 1. A) Label H 2. B) Label C 3. C) Label A 4. D) Label B 5. E) Label F i Page Ref: 162 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 2) The area that causes the lengthwise growth of a long bone is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label F 2. B) Label D 3. C) Label A 4. D) Label E 5. E) Label C Page Ref: 161, 162 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 3) The area that serves as a storage area for fat in adults is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label H 2. B) Label F 3. C) Label A 4. D) Label G 5. E) Label B Page Ref: 161, 162 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 4) The diaphysis is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label D 2. B) Label C 3. C) Label G 4. D) Label A 5. E) Label H Page Ref: 161, 162 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 5) The periosteum, a connective tissue covering on the diaphysis, is represented by ________. 1. A) Label C 2. B) Label A 3. C) Label G 4. D) Label B 5. E) Label F Page Ref: 161, 162 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 6) The area that contains glassy hyaline cartilage that provides a smooth slippery surface which decreases friction is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label D 2. B) Label H 3. C) Label E 4. D) Label B 5. E) Label A Page Ref: 161, 162 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 7) Blood cell formation is called ________. 1. A) ossification 2. B) hematopoiesis 3. C) homeostasis 4. D) metabolism Page Ref: 159 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 8) What bones protect the spinal cord? 1. A) ribs 2. B) sternum 3. C) vertebrae 4. D) coxal bones Page Ref: 159 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 9) Cube-shaped bones that contain mostly spongy bone are called ________ bones. 1. A) flat 2. B) long 3. C) short 4. D) irregular Page Ref: 160 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 10) Small canals that connect osteocytes in their lacunae to the central canal are known as ________. 1. A) canaliculi 2. B) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals 3. C) central (Haversian) canals 4. D) perforating (Sharpey’s) fibers Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 11) The process of bone formation is known as ________. 1. A) hematopoiesis 2. B) hemostasis 3. C) metabolism 4. D) ossification Page Ref: 165 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 12) Bone-destroying cells known as osteoclasts are activated by the hormone ________. 1. A) calcitonin 2. B) parathyroid hormone (PTH) 3. C) insulin 4. D) growth hormone Page Ref: 166 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 13) The first step in bone healing involves the formation of a blood-filled swelling known as a(n) ________. 1. A) epiphyseal line 2. B) bony callus 3. C) hematoma 4. D) fibrocartilage callus Page Ref: 169 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 14) An incomplete bone break, known as a(n) ________ fracture, is commonly seen in children. 1. A) spiral 2. B) greenstick 3. C) impacted 4. D) comminuted Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 15) The skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage form the ________ skeleton. 1. A) appendicular 2. B) central 3. C) axial 4. D) main Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 16) The large hole located in the base of the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord and brain to connect is the ________. 1. A) occipital condyle 2. B) vertebral foramen 3. C) intervertebral foramen 4. D) foramen magnum i Page Ref: 172 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 17) The temporal bones are joined with the parietal bones at the ________ sutures. 1. A) coronal 2. B) sagittal 3. C) squamous 4. D) lambdoid Page Ref: 171 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 18) The shin bone is called the ________. 1. A) tibia 2. B) fibula 3. C) femur 4. D) radius Page Ref: 189 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 19) The head of the humerus fits into the ________ of the scapula. 1. A) acromion process 2. B) glenoid cavity 3. C) suprascapula notch 4. D) coracoid process Page Ref: 182 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 20) Two or more bones meet at a location called a(n) ________. 1. A) fracture 2. B) hematoma 3. C) articulation (joint) 4. D) marrow cavity Page Ref: 190 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 21) Immovable joints are functionally classified as ________. 1. A) diarthroses 2. B) synarthroses 3. C) amphiarthroses 4. D) symphyses Page Ref: 190 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Using Figure 5.2, identify the following: 22) The parietal bone is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label M 2. B) Label O 3. C) Label A 4. D) Label H 5. E) Label P Page Ref: 171 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 23) The fibula is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label Q 2. B) Label X 3. C) Label R 4. D) Label T 5. E) Label W Page Ref: 188, 189 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 24) The patella is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label E 2. B) Label G 3. C) Label I 4. D) Label U 5. E) Label A Page Ref: 189 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 25) The manubrium and xiphoid process are markings on the bone indicated by ________. 1. A) Label O 2. B) Label N 3. C) Label A 4. D) Label K 5. E) Label B Page Ref: 181 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 26) The radius bone is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label T 2. B) Label R 3. C) Label F 4. D) Label S 5. E) Label Q Page Ref: 184, 185 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 27) The mandible is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label N 2. B) Label W 3. C) Label M 4. D) Label C 5. E) Label B Page Ref: 174, 175 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 28) The carpals are indicated by ________. 1. A) Label N 2. B) Label X 3. C) Label J 4. D) Label I 5. E) Label T Page Ref: 185 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 29) The greater tubercle and trochlea are bone markings situated on the bone marked by ________. 1. A) Label O 2. B) Label I 3. C) Label E 4. D) Label Y 5. E) Label A Page Ref: 184 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 30) The ilium, pubis, and ischium fuse to form the bone marked by ________. 1. A) Label F 2. B) Label G 3. C) Label T 4. D) Label H 5. E) Label I Page Ref: 186 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 5.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions 1) The most important minerals stored in bones are ________. 1. A) calcium and iron 2. B) sodium and phosphorus 3. C) sodium and potassium 4. D) calcium and phosphorus 5. E) calcium and potassium i Page Ref: 159 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 2) The arrangement of bone tissue shown in Figure 5.3 consists of ________. 1. A) osteons (Haversian systems) 2. B) yellow marrow 3. C) trabeculae 4. D) neurons 5. E) red marrow Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 3) Where does hematopoiesis occur? 1. A) marrow cavity 2. B) epiphyseal plate 3. C) articular cartilage 4. D) periosteum 5. E) endosteum Page Ref: 159 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 4) The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as ________. 1. A) compact bones 2. B) irregular bones 3. C) flat bones 4. D) long bones 5. E) sesamoid bones i Page Ref: 160 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 5) What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces friction in the joints? 1. A) yellow marrow 2. B) endosteum 3. C) spongy bone 4. D) periosteum 5. E) articular cartilage Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 6) In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to ________. 1. A) store adipose tissue 2. B) form blood cells 3. C) store calcium and phosphorus 4. D) promote lengthwise growth in long bones 5. E) decrease friction at joint surfaces Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 7) The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that ________. 1. A) bone is dead 2. B) bone length is no longer increasing 3. C) bone diameter is increasing 4. D) bone diameter is decreasing 5. E) bone length is increasing Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 3) Application 8) Each complex of central canal and matrix rings in compact bone is known as ________. 1. A) a perforating (Volkmann’s) canal 2. B) the epiphysis 3. C) a canaliculus 4. D) a central (Haversian) canal 5. E) an osteon (Haversian system) Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 9) The bone cells that respond to parathyroid hormone (PTH) to destroy bone matrix and release calcium into the blood are called ________. 1. A) osteocytes 2. B) chondrocytes 3. C) erythrocytes 4. D) osteoclasts 5. E) osteoblasts i Page Ref: 166 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 10) Which of the following is only found associated with a child’s bone? 1. A) diaphysis 2. B) marrow cavity 3. C) epiphyseal plate 4. D) periosteum 5. E) articular cartilage Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 3) Application 11) Which of these bone markings is a projection that serves as a site for muscle or ligament attachment? 1. A) meatus 2. B) fossa 3. C) foramen 4. D) fissure 5. E) tubercle Page Ref: 164 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 12) Which of the following bones is considered part of the axial skeleton? 1. A) femur 2. B) sternum 3. C) radius 4. D) metatarsals 5. E) scapula Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 3) Application 13) The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (Haversian system) contains ________. 1. A) cartilage and lamellae 2. B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts 3. C) yellow marrow and perforating, or Sharpey’s, fibers 4. D) blood vessels and nerve fibers 5. E) red marrow i Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 14) The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called ________. 1. A) lacunae 2. B) perforating (Volkmann’s) canals 3. C) central (Haversian) canals 4. D) trabeculae 5. E) lamellae Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 15) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? 1. A) elastic connective tissue 2. B) dense fibrous connective tissue 3. C) fibrocartilage 4. D) hyaline cartilage 5. E) loose fibrous connective tissue i Page Ref: 165 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 16) What type of bone cell is primarily active when bone growth occurs? 1. A) osteocyte 2. B) erythrocyte 3. C) chondrocyte 4. D) osteoblast 5. E) osteoclast i Page Ref: 165 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 17) The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are) ________. 1. A) sex hormones 2. B) growth hormone 3. C) stress of gravity and pull of muscles on the skeleton 4. D) parathyroid hormone (PTH) 5. E) calcium level of the blood Page Ref: 166 Bloom’s: 3) Application 18) There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages? 1. bony callus formation 3. fibrocartilage callus formation 2. bone remodeling 4. hematoma formation 3. A) 4, 3, 2, 1 4. B) 4, 3, 1, 2 5. C) 1, 2, 3, 4 6. D) 1, 3, 4, 2 7. E) 1, 3, 2, 4 Page Ref: 169 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 19) Bone growth that occurs due to weight lifting at age 40 is most likely ________. 1. A) endochondrial growth 2. B) none since bones do not grow after adolescence 3. C) appositional growth 4. D) occurring at the epiphyseal lines 5. E) occurring at the epiphyseal plates Page Ref: 166 Bloom’s: 3) Application 20) An open, or compound, fracture can be described as when ________. 1. A) the bone is crushed 2. B) the broken bone ends are forced into each other 3. C) the broken bone is exposed to the outside 4. D) the bone is broken into many fragments 5. E) adjacent bones fracture simultaneously Page Ref: 169 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 21) A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a ________. 1. A) compound fracture 2. B) simple fracture 3. C) comminuted fracture 4. D) compression fracture 5. E) greenstick fracture Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 22) The physician knew her patient was most likely a child before she walked into the examination room because the X-ray revealed a(n) ________. 1. A) impacted fracture 2. B) compression fracture 3. C) comminuted fracture 4. D) greenstick fracture 5. E) open fracture i Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 3) Application 23) A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n) ________. 1. A) impacted fracture 2. B) compression fracture 3. C) spiral fracture 4. D) depressed fracture 5. E) simple fracture Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 24) The axial skeleton contains ________. 1. skull 2. scapula 3. and ribs 4. vertebrae 5. phalanges 6. A) 1, 3, 4, 5 7. B) 1, 3, 4 8. C) 2, 5 9. D) 2, 3, 4, 5 10. E) 1, 2, 3, 5 Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 25) The suture situated anteriorly between the parietal bones and occipital bone is the ________. 1. A) squamous suture 2. B) lambdoid suture 3. C) sagittal suture 4. D) coronal suture 5. E) both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture Page Ref: 172 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 26) Identify the bones that do NOT house a paranasal sinus ________. 1. A) frontal bones 2. B) maxillary bones 3. C) ethmoid bones 4. D) sphenoid bones 5. E) zygomatic bones Page Ref: 172-175 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 27) The fibrous connections between the bones of a fetal skull are ________. 1. A) alveolar margins 2. B) sinuses 3. C) palates 4. D) crista galli 5. E) fontanels Page Ref: 176 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 28) Which of these bones is associated with the hand? 1. A) talus 2. B) calcaneus 3. C) metatarsals 4. D) tarsals 5. E) metacarpals Page Ref: 185 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 29) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. 1. A) is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone 2. B) is an irregular bone 3. C) belongs to both the axial and appendicular skeletons 4. D) has no specific function 5. E) largely consists of cartilage Page Ref: 175 Bloom’s: 3) Application 30) What feature is uniquely associated with cervical vertebrae? 1. A) spinous processes 2. B) transverse processes 3. C) vertebral foramina 4. D) transverse foramina 5. E) pedicles i Page Ref: 180 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 31) How many ribs do humans have? 1. A) three 2. B) five 3. C) seven 4. D) twelve 5. E) fifteen Page Ref: 181, 182 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 32) The dens is a process projecting from the ________. 1. A) sacrum 2. B) coccyx 3. C) intervertebral discs 4. D) atlas 5. E) axis Page Ref: 178 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 33) The atlas is the ________. 1. A) last lumbar vertebra 2. B) first thoracic vertebra 3. C) part of the sacrum 4. D) second cervical vertebra 5. E) first cervical vertebra Page Ref: 178 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 34) Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior? 1. A) floating ribs, ribs, ribs 2. B) floating ribs, ribs, ribs 3. C) ribs, ribs, floating ribs 4. D) ribs, floating ribs, ribs 5. E) ribs, floating ribs, ribs Page Ref: 181, 182 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 35) The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the ________. 1. A) ischium, ilium, coccyx 2. B) pubis, ischium, ilium 3. C) manubrium, body, xiphoid process 4. D) jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint 5. E) ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process Page Ref: 181 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 36) Which two bones constitute the forearm? 1. A) radius and humerus 2. B) humerus and scapula 3. C) fibula and tibia 4. D) ulna and radius 5. E) femur and fibula i Page Ref: 185 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 37) The tailbone is the ________. 1. A) ischium 2. B) sacrum 3. C) pubis 4. D) coccyx 5. E) patella i Page Ref: 180 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 38) You examine an articulated skeleton in the laboratory and determine the skeleton to be a female since ________. 1. A) the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller than in a male 2. B) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater than in a male 3. C) the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less than in a male 4. D) the female iliac bones are less flared than in a male 5. E) the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker than in a male Page Ref: 186 Bloom’s: 3) Application 39) The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is ________. 1. A) a suture 2. B) a fibrous joint 3. C) an amphiarthrotic joint 4. D) a cartilaginous joint 5. E) a synovial joint Page Ref: 194 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 40) A structure found on the femur is the ________. 1. A) anterior crest 2. B) trochlea 3. C) lateral malleolus 4. D) intercondylar fossa 5. E) medial malleolus i Page Ref: 188-189 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 41) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________, whereas articulations permitting no movement are called ________. 1. A) amphiarthroses; synarthroses 2. B) synarthroses; amphiarthroses 3. C) diarthroses; amphiarthroses 4. D) amphiarthroses; diarthroses 5. E) diarthroses; synarthroses Page Ref: 190 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 42) The wrist bones are actually ________. 1. A) tarsals 2. B) metacarpals 3. C) phalanges 4. D) metatarsals 5. E) carpals Page Ref: 185 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 43) Which of these bones articulates with the acetabulum of the coxal bone? 1. A) femur 2. B) patella 3. C) fibula 4. D) sacrum 5. E) tibia Page Ref: 188 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 44) Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the exception. 1. A) humerus 2. B) radius 3. C) scapula 4. D) fibula 5. E) clavicle i Page Ref: 182-184 Bloom’s: 3) Application 45) The elbow is classified as a(n) ________. 1. A) plane joint 2. B) hinge joint 3. C) pivot joint 4. D) saddle joint 5. E) condylar joint Page Ref: 194 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 5.3 / Questions 1) Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones. Answer: Page Ref: 159 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 2) Articular cartilage covers the diaphysis of long bones. Answer: Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 3) The arrangement of lamellae around central (Haversian) canals forms osteons (Haversian systems). Answer: Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 4) Hypercalcemia promotes the deposition of calcium to bones. Answer: Page Ref: 166 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 5) A closed, or simple, fracture is one that penetrates through the skin’s surface. Answer: Page Ref: 169 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 6) The last two pairs of ribs are called ribs because they have no anterior attachments. Answer: Page Ref: 182 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 7) Teeth are anchored in the maxillary bones and the mandible. Answer: Page Ref: 173, 175 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 8) The spinal cord passes through the body of each vertebra. Answer: Page Ref: 178 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 9) The intervertebral discs that cushion the spine and absorb shock are composed of fibrocartilage. Answer: Page Ref: 193 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 10) In anatomical position, the lateral lower leg bone is the fibula. Answer: Page Ref: 189 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 11) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae. Answer: Page Ref: 176-177 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 12) A newborn baby has an S-shaped spinal curvature known as a primary curvature. Answer: Page Ref: 177 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 13) Diarthroses have a greater degree of mobility and flexibility than synarthroses. Answer: Page Ref: 190-191 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 14) Joint inflammation is known as ankylosis. Answer: Page Ref: 196 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 5.4 Matching Questions Match the following: 1. A) greenstick fracture 2. B) depression fracture 3. C) impacted fracture 4. D) comminuted fracture 5. E) spiral fracture 1) Incomplete bone break Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 2) Broken bone portion is pushed inward Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 3) Ragged bone break resulting from twisting forces Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 4) Bone breaks into many fragments Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 5) Broken bone ends are forced into each other Page Ref: 168 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) C Match the following: 1. A) osteoclasts 2. B) epiphyseal plate 3. C) lamellae 4. D) osteoblasts 5. E) canaliculi 6) Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix Page Ref: 166 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 7) Layers or rings of calcification that are found in compact bone Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 8) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of compact bone Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 9) Cells that can build bony matrix Page Ref: 165 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 10) Area where bone growth takes place in a long bone Page Ref: 161 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Answers: 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) B Match the following: 1. A) ball-and-socket joint 2. B) pivot joint 3. C) plane joint 4. D) hinge joint 5. E) condylar joint 11) Wrist joint Page Ref: 194 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 12) Shoulder joint Page Ref: 196 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 13) Ankle joint Page Ref: 194 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 14) Knuckle joints Page Ref: 196 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 15) Joint between atlas and axis Page Ref: 194 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Answers: 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) E 15) B Match the following: 1. A) appendicular skeleton 2. B) axial skeleton 16) Tarsals Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 17) Femur Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 18) Phalanges Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 19) Ulna Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 20) Atlas Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 21) Sternum Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 22) Fibula Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 23) Coxal bone Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 24) ribs Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 25) Parietal bones Page Ref: 170 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Answers: 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) B 5.5 Essay Questions 1) Explain the five functions of the skeletal system. 2) Differentiate between the functions of yellow marrow and red marrow. 3) List and explain the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture. 4) Explain how the anatomy of compact bone differs from that of spongy bone. Spongy bone is open, airy, spiky and is composed of small, needlelike pieces of bone. Spongy bone lacks osteons and a network of canals. Page Ref: 159, 161-162 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 5) Explain how bones are remodeled in response to parathyroid hormone (PTH). 6) List some of the features of a female pelvis that make it different from a male pelvis. Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 7) If 6-year-old Sarah fell and broke her femur, damaging the proximal epiphyseal plate, what might she expect as she grows older? What is an epiphyseal plate and why is it significant to this Page Ref: 161, 165-166 Bloom’s: 3) Application 8) Maria observes a patient in her clinic with a spinal curvature abnormality. She notices the patient’s spine curves laterally from the midline. Determine the abnormality she observed and explain how she differentiated it from the other two types of spinal abnormalities. 9) Explain how atlas and axis are different from other vertebrae. Discuss the roles they play in the body. 10) Differentiate among the three types of joints based on structural and functional classification. Provide examples of each type of joint. Essentials of Human Anatomy and Physiology, 11e, (Marieb) Chapter 7 The Nervous System 7.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions Using Figure 7.1, identify the following: 1) The neural processes that convey incoming messages toward the cell body are indicated by ________. 1. A) Label H 2. B) Label G 3. C) Label A 4. D) Label F 5. E) Label B Page Ref: 253, 254 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 2) The metabolic center of the neuron is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label D 2. B) Label F 3. C) Label A 4. D) Label H 5. E) Label I Page Ref: 253, 254 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 3) The axon terminals are indicated by ________. 1. A) Label I 2. B) Label G 3. C) Label B 4. D) Label A 5. E) Label C Page Ref: 253, 254 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 4) The axon is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label B 2. B) Label F 3. C) Label H 4. D) Label I 5. E) Label A Page Ref: 253, 254 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 5) The gaps between Schwann cells are indicated by ________. 1. A) Label D 2. B) Label H 3. C) Label B 4. D) Label F 5. E) Label A Page Ref: 253, 254 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 6) The nucleus of the neuron is indicated by ________. 1. A) Label E 2. B) Label I 3. C) Label A 4. D) Label B 5. E) Label F Page Ref: 253, 254 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 7) The nervous system is structurally subdivided into two systems: ________ nervous system and ________ nervous system. 1. A) central; peripheral 2. B) somatic; autonomic 3. C) parasympathetic; sympathetic 4. D) autonomic; sympathetic Page Ref: 250-251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 8) ________ cells form the myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the PNS. 1. A) Satellite 2. B) Ependymal 3. C) Schwann 4. D) Nerve Page Ref: 253 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 9) Support cells in the central nervous system are collectively called ________. 1. A) myelin sheaths 2. B) neuroglia 3. C) oligodendrocytes 4. D) microglia Page Ref: 252 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 10) The part of the neuron that typically conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is the ________. 1. A) dendrite 2. B) cell body 3. C) synaptic cleft 4. D) axon i Page Ref: 253 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 11) The gaps between Schwann cells found at regular intervals in peripheral system neurons are called ________. 1. A) synaptic clefts 2. B) axon terminals 3. C) nodes of Ranvier 4. D) myelin sheaths Page Ref: 255 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 12) Sensory receptors located in muscles and tendons are termed ________. 1. A) Meissner’s corpuscles 2. B) proprioceptors 3. C) lamellar corpuscles 4. D) association neurons Page Ref: 256 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 13) Bundles of nerve fibers (neuron processes) running through the CNS are called ________, whereas in the PNS they are called ________. 1. A) tracts; nerves 2. B) gray matter; white matter 3. C) axons; dendrites 4. D) afferent neurons; efferent neurons Page Ref: 256 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 14) The cell bodies of the ________ neurons are always located within the CNS. 1. A) proprioceptor 2. B) afferent 3. C) motor 4. D) sensory Page Ref: 257 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 15) Myelinated fibers (tracts) form ________ matter while unmyelinated fibers form ________ matter. 1. A) sensory; motor 2. B) gray; white 3. C) motor; sensory 4. D) white; gray i Page Ref: 256 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 16) ________ connect sensory and motor neurons in neural pathways and their cell bodies are typically located in the central nervous system. 1. A) Interneurons (association neurons) 2. B) Afferent 3. C) Efferent 4. D) Proprioceptors Page Ref: 257 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 17) During repolarization, ________ ions are pumped out of the cell. 1. A) sodium 2. B) potassium 3. C) both sodium and potassium 4. D) calcium Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 18) ________ reflexes include the secretion of saliva, changes in the size of our pupils, and digestion involve the activities of smooth muscles. 1. A) Somatic 2. B) Voluntary 3. C) Autonomic 4. D) Sympathetic Page Ref: 261 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 19) The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus collectively constitute the ________. 1. A) cerebellum 2. B) dicephalon (interbrain) 3. C) brain stem 4. D) cerebrum Page Ref: 265, 269 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 20) The brain dysfunction where blood supply to a region (or regions) of the brain is blocked and vital brain tissue dies, as by a blood clot or a ruptured blood vessel, is called ________. 1. A) cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke 2. B) Parkinson’s disease 3. C) Huntington’s disease 4. D) multiple sclerosis Page Ref: 275 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 21) The brain and spinal cord are protected and cushioned by three connective tissue membranes that are collectively called ________. 1. A) ventricles 2. B) arachnoid villi 3. C) meninges 4. D) sinuses Page Ref: 271 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 22) Cerebrospinal fluid is formed from blood by clusters of capillaries in the brain known as ________. 1. A) choroid plexuses 2. B) arachnoid villi 3. C) ventricles 4. D) sinuses Page Ref: 272 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 23) The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the ________ lobe of the cerebrum. 1. A) parietal 2. B) frontal 3. C) temporal 4. D) occipital Page Ref: 264 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 24) The blood-brain barrier is formed by ________ junctions that nearly seamlessly bind capillaries in the brain. 1. A) gap 2. B) intercalated 3. C) desmosome 4. D) tight i Page Ref: 274 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 25) One of the major functions of the pons is to control ________. 1. A) breathing 2. B) hunger 3. C) thirst 4. D) consciousness Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 26) The fissure in the brain that separates the two cerebral hemispheres is called the ________. 1. A) transverse fissure 2. B) longitudinal fissure 3. C) sagittal fissure 4. D) tentorium cerebelli Page Ref: 263 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 27) The hypothalamus regulates the ________. 1. A) pineal gland 2. B) pituitary gland 3. C) pons 4. D) thalamus Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 28) The large fiber tract that allows communication between the two cerebral hemispheres is called the ________. 1. A) corpus callosum 2. B) fornix 3. C) pons 4. D) thalamus Page Ref: 268 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 29) The portion of the diencephalon that acts as a relay station for sensory impulses traveling to the sensory cortex is the ________. 1. A) pons 2. B) pituitary gland 3. C) thalamus 4. D) hypothalamus Page Ref: 265, 269 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 30) The delicate innermost membrane, or meningeal layer, that clings to the surface of the brain and spinal cord is known as the ________ mater. 1. A) dura 2. B) arachnoid 3. C) periosteal 4. D) pia i Page Ref: 271 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 31) Hemiplegia and aphasia characterize those patients who have experienced a ________. 1. A) concussion 2. B) cerebrovascular accident (CVA), or stroke 3. C) contusion 4. D) cerebral edema Page Ref: 275 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 32) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves and ________ pairs of spinal nerves in the peripheral nervous system. 1. A) 5; 7 2. B) 18; 34 3. C) 12; 31 4. D) 15; 25 Page Ref: 281 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 33) ________ disease results from a degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the substantia nigra. 1. A) Parkinson’s 2. B) Alzheimer’s 3. C) Huntington’s 4. D) Autoimmune Page Ref: 276 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 34) The ________ is a connective tissue wrapping around fascicles of neuron fibers. 1. A) epineurium 2. B) endoneurium 3. C) perineurium 4. D) perimysium Page Ref: 280 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 35) Sweat glands that produce perspiration when stimulated are innervated only by the ________ fibers. 1. A) sympathetic 2. B) parasympathetic 3. C) somatic 4. D) afferent Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 36) The only pair of cranial nerves to extend to the thoracic and abdominal cavities is the ________ nerves. 1. A) glossopharyngeal 2. B) oculomotor 3. C) vestibulocochlear 4. D) vagus i Page Ref: 281 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 37) Cranial nerve III is known as the ________ nerve. 1. A) optic 2. B) olfactory 3. C) oculomotor 4. D) trochlear Page Ref: 282 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 38) The number of neurons involved in transmission of impulses in the autonomic nervous system is ________. 1. A) one 2. B) two 3. C) four 4. D) eight Page Ref: 289 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 39) One of the last areas of the CNS to mature is the ________, which regulates body temperature. 1. A) hypothalamus 2. B) thalamus 3. C) cerebellum 4. D) cerebrum Page Ref: 293 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 40) The largest nerve in the body, the sciatic nerve, belongs to the ________ nerve plexus. 1. A) lumbar 2. B) sacral 3. C) brachial 4. D) cervical Page Ref: 286 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 41) Each spinal nerve divides into a dorsal and a ventral ________. 1. A) ramus 2. B) tract 3. C) ganglion 4. D) plexus Page Ref: 281 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 42) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is often called the “rest-and-digest” division. 1. A) somatic 2. B) sympathetic 3. C) parasympathetic 4. D) afferent Page Ref: 291 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 7.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions 1) The term central nervous system refers to the ________. 1. A) autonomic and peripheral nervous systems 2. B) brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves 3. C) brain and cranial nerves 4. D) spinal cord and spinal nerves 5. E) brain and spinal cord Page Ref: 250, 251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 2) Fibers that carry information from the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the central nervous system are ________. 1. A) motor 2. B) visceral sensory 3. C) somatic sensory 4. D) interneurons (association neurons) 5. E) parasympathetic Page Ref: 251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 3) Which of these neuroglial cells forms the myelin sheath in the central nervous system? 1. A) astrocytes 2. B) oligodendrocytes 3. C) Schwann cells 4. D) ependymal cells 5. E) satellite cells Page Ref: 253 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 4) The Schwann cell forms a myelin sheath around the ________. 1. A) dendrites 2. B) cell body 3. C) nucleus 4. D) axon 5. E) nodes of Ranvier i Page Ref: 253 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 5) The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called ________. 1. A) axons 2. B) dendrites 3. C) neurolemmas 4. D) Schwann cells 5. E) satellite cells Page Ref: 253 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 6) Unmyelinated nerve fibers are known as ________. 1. A) white matter 2. B) sensors 3. C) myelin sheaths 4. D) receptors 5. E) gray matter Page Ref: 256 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 7) The major role of the interneuron (association neuron) is to ________. 1. A) carry information from the central nervous system to muscles and/or the viscera 2. B) form a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell membrane on the outside of axons 3. C) transmit nerve impulses from the skin and organs to the central nervous system 4. D) connect motor and sensory neurons in their pathways 5. E) detect the amount of stretch in skeletal muscles or tendons and their joints i Page Ref: 257 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 8) Neurons with several processes branching off the cell body, such as motor neurons and interneurons (association neurons), are structurally classified as ________. 1. A) efferent 2. B) multipolar 3. C) afferent 4. D) bipolar 5. E) unipolar Page Ref: 258 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 9) The two major functional properties of neurons are ________. 1. A) cover and line body surfaces 2. B) contraction and movements 3. C) irritability and conductivity 4. D) connect and protect 5. E) lubricate and secrete Page Ref: 258 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 10) Ganglia are collections of ________. 1. A) nuclei 2. B) dendrites 3. C) cell bodies 4. D) axons 5. E) axon terminals Page Ref: 255 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 11) Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are ________. 1. A) myelinated 2. B) unmyelinated 3. C) sensory 4. D) motor 5. E) cerebral Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 12) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________. 1. A) motor neurons 2. B) called neuroglia 3. C) found in ganglia 4. D) found in the eye and nose 5. E) more abundant in adults than in children i Page Ref: 258 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 13) During the resting state, a neuron is ________. 1. A) polarized with more sodium ions outside the cell and more potassium ions inside the cell 2. B) propagating the action potential 3. C) depolarizing and generating an action potential 4. D) restoring the ionic conditions utilizing the sodium-potassium pump 5. E) repolarizing as potassium ions diffuse out of the cell Page Ref: 258 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 14) Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which one of the following ions rapidly diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid ________. 1. A) sodium 2. B) chloride 3. C) calcium 4. D) potassium 5. E) magnesium i Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 15) An action potential is caused by an influx of these ions into the cell ________. 1. A) potassium 2. B) sodium 3. C) calcium 4. D) magnesium 5. E) both potassium and sodium Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 16) Nerve impulse transmissions occurring along myelinated neurons are called ________. 1. A) saltatory conduction 2. B) threshold 3. C) graded potential 4. D) sodium-potassium pump 5. E) all-or-none response Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 17) Neurons either conduct action potentials along the length of their axons, or they remain at rest. This statement best describes ________. 1. A) a reflex arc 2. B) the all-or-none response 3. C) repolarization 4. D) saltatory conduction 5. E) graded potential Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 18) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events that correlates to the sequence of events of a nerve impulse? 1. the membrane becomes depolarized 2. sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward 3. the membrane becomes repolarized 4. potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward while sodium is actively transported out of the cell 5. A) 3, 2, 4, 1 6. B) 2, 1, 4, 3 7. C) 2, 1, 3, 4 8. D) 1, 2, 4, 3 9. E) 4, 1, 3, 2 Page Ref: 259 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 19) Which ion causes neurotransmitter vesicles to fuse with the axon’s membrane during the conduction of a nerve impulse from one neuron to the next? 1. A) chlorine 2. B) sodium 3. C) potassium 4. D) calcium 5. E) magnesium i Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 20) The gap between two communicating neurons is termed ________. 1. A) synaptic cleft 2. B) cell body 3. C) effector 4. D) Schwann cell 5. E) node of Ranvier Page Ref: 253, 263 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 21) The substance that is released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called ________. 1. A) an ion 2. B) nerve glue 3. C) a neurotransmitter 4. D) the sodium-potassium pump 5. E) an action potential Page Ref: 253, 260 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 22) Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc? 1. A) effector, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, receptor 2. B) receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector 3. C) effector, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, receptor 4. D) receptor, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, effector 5. E) receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, integration center, effector Page Ref: 261, 262 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 23) Rick quickly pulled his hand away from the hot stove. This reflex is best known as a(n) ________. 1. A) two-neuron reflex 2. B) patellar reflex 3. C) knee-jerk reflex 4. D) withdrawal reflex 5. E) autonomic reflex i Page Ref: 263 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 24) Which type of reflex involves skeletal muscles? 1. A) parasympathetic 2. B) sympathetic 3. C) autonomic 4. D) somatic 5. E) visceral i Page Ref: 261 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 25) The sensory homunculus is located in the primary somatic sensory area in the ________. 1. A) parietal lobe 2. B) occipital lobe 3. C) frontal lobe 4. D) temporal lobe 5. E) cerebellum Page Ref: 264 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 26) A stroke in the primary motor area has caused Don to lose control over his skeletal muscles on the right side of his body. What lobe of his brain was damaged? 1. A) occipital lobe 2. B) temporal lobe 3. C) frontal lobe 4. D) parietal lobe 5. E) pyramidal tract Page Ref: 264 Bloom’s: 3) Application 27) Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but can’t vocalize the words. The part of her brain that deals with the ability to speak is the ________. 1. A) longitudinal fissure 2. B) gyrus 3. C) central sulcus 4. D) Broca’s area 5. E) primary motor area i Page Ref: 264 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 28) The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the ________. 1. A) diencephalon 2. B) hypothalamus 3. C) brain stem 4. D) pineal gland 5. E) cerebellum Page Ref: 265, 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 29) What part of the brain stem houses reflex centers for vision and hearing? 1. A) pons 2. B) corpora quadrigemina 3. C) fourth ventricle 4. D) medulla oblongata 5. E) reticular formation Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 30) The hypothalamus is the “emotional-visceral” center of the brain and, thus, is an important part of the ________. 1. A) posterior association area 2. B) reticular activating system 3. C) limbic system 4. D) Broca’s area 5. E) anterior association area Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 31) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through all of the following EXCEPT ________. 1. A) subarachnoid space 2. B) corpus callosum 3. C) cerebral aqueduct 4. D) fourth ventricle 5. E) lateral ventricles Page Ref: 271-274 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 32) A special group of neurons in the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the awake/sleep cycles is the ________. 1. A) thalamus 2. B) reticular activating system (RAS) 3. C) pineal gland 4. D) limbic system 5. E) cerebellum Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 33) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. 1. A) medulla oblongata 2. B) cerebellum 3. C) hypothalamus 4. D) thalamus 5. E) cerebrum Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 34) The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the ________. 1. A) pons 2. B) medulla oblongata 3. C) midbrain 4. D) cerebrum 5. E) hypothalamus Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 35) Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the ________. 1. A) cerebrum 2. B) hypothalamus 3. C) cerebellum 4. D) thalamus 5. E) midbrain Page Ref: 270-271 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 36) Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to innermost layers of the meninges? 1. A) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater 2. B) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater 3. C) arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater 4. D) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater 5. E) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater Page Ref: 271 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 37) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into venous blood in the dural sinuses via the ________. 1. A) cerebral aqueduct 2. B) hypothalamus 3. C) arachnoid villus 4. D) choroid plexus 5. E) pons Page Ref: 271 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 38) The cerebrospinal fluid ________. 1. A) is secreted by the arachnoid villi 2. B) enters the four ventricles after filling and circulating through the subarachnoid space 3. C) is secreted mostly by the ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles 4. D) is continually formed mostly by the choroid plexuses 5. E) is identical in composition to whole blood i Page Ref: 272 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 39) The blood-brain barrier is effective against the passage of ________. 1. A) water 2. B) nutrients such as glucose 3. C) alcohol 4. D) anesthetics 5. E) metabolic waste such as urea Page Ref: 274 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 40) Which of the following brain dysfunctions is also known as a stroke? 1. A) cerebrovascular accident (CVA) 2. B) Alzheimer’s disease 3. C) aphasia 4. D) cerebral edema 5. E) Parkinson’s disease Page Ref: 275 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 41) The spinal cord terminates around vertebra ________. 1. A) C7 2. B) T2 3. C) T9 4. D) L3 5. E) S4 i Page Ref: 277 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 42) Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________. 1. A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord 2. B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord 3. C) the thalamus 4. D) the hypothalamus 5. E) sympathetic ganglia Page Ref: 278 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 43) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord, from superior to inferior? 1. A) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves 2. B) cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves 3. C) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves 4. D) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves 5. E) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves Page Ref: 278, 285, 286 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 44) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from outermost to innermost layer? 1. A) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium 2. B) epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium 3. C) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium 4. D) perineurium, endoneurium, epineurium 5. E) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium Page Ref: 280 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 45) Each spinal nerve branches into a ventral and dorsal ________. 1. A) root 2. B) ganglion 3. C) plexus 4. D) ramus 5. E) tract i Page Ref: 281 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 46) How many pairs of cranial nerves branch from the surface of the brain? 1. A) three 2. B) five 3. C) seven 4. D) twelve 5. E) eighteen i Page Ref: 281 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 47) Which cranial nerves control eye movement? 1. A) cranial nerve II, IV, V 2. B) cranial nerve III, IV, VI 3. C) cranial nerve V, VI, VIII 4. D) cranial nerve VIII, X, XII 5. E) cranial nerve IX, X, XI Page Ref: 282-283 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 48) The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form complex networks of nerves known as a ________. 1. A) ganglion 2. B) reflex 3. C) plexus 4. D) tract 5. E) fascicle Page Ref: 285 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 49) Which cranial nerve descends into the thoracic and abdominal cavities to regulate heart rate and promote digestive activity? 1. A) oculomotor 2. B) vagus 3. C) hypoglossal 4. D) accessory 5. E) glossopharyngeal Page Ref: 283 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 50) Which nervous system subdivision is a chain of two motor neurons consisting of a preganglionic neuron and a postganglionic neuron? 1. A) somatic 2. B) central 3. C) autonomic 4. D) skeletal 5. E) sensory Page Ref: 289 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 51) Which of the following is NOT a major nerve of the brachial nerve plexus? 1. A) radial 2. B) axillary 3. C) musculocutaneous 4. D) median 5. E) phrenic Page Ref: 286 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 52) The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body resulting from a combination of which two nerves? 1. A) pudendal and femoral nerves 2. B) femoral and tibial nerves 3. C) pudendal and common peroneal nerves 4. D) common fibular and tibial nerves 5. E) pudendal and tibial nerves i Page Ref: 286 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 53) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the ________. 1. A) central nervous system 2. B) voluntary nervous system 3. C) autonomic nervous system 4. D) somatic nervous system 5. E) peripheral nervous system Page Ref: 251, 288 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 54) In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system ________. 1. A) has a chain of two motor neurons 2. B) has a chain of two sensory neurons 3. C) stimulates its effector cells 4. D) has both sensory and motor fibers 5. E) is a subdivision of the central nervous system Page Ref: 289 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 55) Which of the following is favored by the parasympathetic nervous system? 1. A) emergency 2. B) exercise 3. C) digestion 4. D) embarrassment 5. E) excitement Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 56) Preparing the body for the “fight-or-flight” response during threatening situations is the role of the ________. 1. A) sympathetic nervous system 2. B) cerebrum 3. C) parasympathetic nervous system 4. D) somatic nervous system 5. E) afferent nervous system Page Ref: 290 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 57) Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system? 1. A) decreased activity of the digestive system 2. B) stimulated sweat glands to produce perspiration 3. C) decreased urine output 4. D) increased metabolic rate 5. E) decreased heart rate Page Ref: 290, 292 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 58) The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the ________. 1. A) central nervous system 2. B) parasympathetic nervous system 3. C) autonomic nervous system 4. D) motor division 5. E) sensory division Page Ref: 251, 290 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 59) Sympathetic division fibers leave the spinal cord in the ________. 1. A) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine 2. B) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine 3. C) craniosacral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine 4. D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine 5. E) craniosacral region, and the preganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine i Page Ref: 290 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 60) What congenital disorder results when the vertebrae fail to form completely around the spinal cord, typically in the lumbosacral region? 1. A) cystic fibrosis 2. B) anencephaly 3. C) hydrocephaly 4. D) cerebral palsy 5. E) spina bifida Page Ref: 293 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 61) Which one of the following statements about aging is most accurate? 1. A) the brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of life 2. B) synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of learning after the age of 35 3. C) despite some neuronal loss, an unlimited number of neural pathways are available and ready to be developed; therefore, additional learning can occur throughout life 4. D) learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported primarily by glial proliferation 5. E) increased efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system enhances the ability to learn Page Ref: 294-295 Bloom’s: 3) Application Section 2 7.3 / Questions 1) The central nervous system includes the spinal nerves and cranial nerves. Answer: Page Ref: 250 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 2) The parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system. Answer: Page Ref: 250, 251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 3) Ependymal cells beat their cilia to help circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Answer: Page Ref: 252-253 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 4) Gaps between adjacent Schwann cells of a myelin sheath are known as nodes of Ranvier. Answer: Page Ref: 255 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 5) A sensory neuron carries stimuli from the central nervous system to the effector. Answer: Page Ref: 256 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 6) Gray matter contains collections of unmyelinated fibers and cell bodies in the central nervous system. Answer: Page Ref: 256 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 7) Neurons with two processes, an axon and a dendrite, are known as bipolar neurons. Answer: Page Ref: 258 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 8) A graded potential is also known as a nerve impulse. Answer: Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 9) Depolarization of neurons results from the entry of sodium ions into the cell. Answer: Page Ref: 260 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 10) The withdrawal, or flexor, reflex is one of the only voluntary reflexes. Answer: Page Ref: 263 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 11) The primary motor area allows us to consciously move our skeletal muscles. Answer: Page Ref: 264 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 12) Difficulty in breathing may reflect damage to respiratory centers located in the cerebellum. Answer: Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 3) Application 13) One of the major functions of the pons is to produce releasing factors that control the function of the anterior pituitary. Answer: Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 14) The thalamus plays a role in regulation of body temperature, metabolism, and water balance. Answer: Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 15) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and also in the subarachnoid space outside the brain. Answer: Page Ref: 272, 273 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 16) The collection of spinal nerves at the inferior end of the spinal cord is called the cauda equina. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 17) There is no possibility of damaging the spinal cord below the third lumbar vertebra. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 18) The ventral and dorsi rami of each spinal nerve contain both sensory and motor nerves. Answer: Page Ref: 281 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 19) Cranial nerve X is the vestibulocochlear nerve, its fibers carry sensations of hearing and equilibrium to the brain. Answer: Page Ref: 282-283 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 20) There are 31 pairs of cranial nerves and 12 pairs of spinal nerves. Answer: Page Ref: 277, 281 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 21) Complex networks of spinal nerves are termed nerve plexuses. Answer: Page Ref: 285 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 22) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers release norepinephrine and the preganglionic axon releases acetylcholine. Answer: Page Ref: 290 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 23) Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems operate with a chain of two motor neurons. Answer: Page Ref: 289 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 24) The parasympathetic division is also called the craniosacral division since the preganglionic neurons originate in the brain and sacral region of the spinal cord. Answer: Page Ref: 290 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 25) The usual cause of nervous system deterioration as we age is circulatory system problems. Answer: Page Ref: 294 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 7.4 Matching Questions Match the following: 1. A) Sensory (afferent) division 2. B) Peripheral nervous system (PNS) 3. C) Central nervous system (CNS) 4. D) Motor (efferent) division 5. E) Autonomic nervous system (ANS) 1) Structural nervous system subdivision that consists of the brain and spinal cord Page Ref: 251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 2) Functional nervous system subdivision that carries information toward the central nervous system from receptors Page Ref: 251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 3) Structural nervous system subdivision that consists of spinal nerves and cranial nerves Page Ref: 251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 4) Subdivision of the motor division responsible for controlling involuntary events Page Ref: 251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 5) Functional nervous system division that carries information from the central nervous system toward effectors Page Ref: 251 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Answers: 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) D Match the following: 1. A) cerebellum 2. B) brain stem 3. C) cerebrum 4. D) diencephalon 6) Thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus Page Ref: 265 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 7) Primary somatic sensory area Page Ref: 265 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 8) Primary motor area Page Ref: 265 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 9) Pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata Page Ref: 265 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 10) Reticular formation Page Ref: 265 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 11) Controls balance and equilibrium Page Ref: 265 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Answers: 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) A Match the following: 1. A) thalamus 2. B) pituitary gland 3. C) epithalamus 4. D) medulla oblongata 5. E) hypothalamus 6. F) midbrain 12) Includes the cerebral peduncles and the corpora quadrigemina Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 13) Contains centers that control heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, swallowing, and vomiting Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 14) Gland that hangs from the hypothalamus Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 15) Regulates body temperature, water balance, and metabolism Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 16) Relay station for sensory impulses passing to the sensory cortex Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 17) Includes the pineal gland and choroid plexus of the third ventricle Page Ref: 270 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Answers: 12) F 13) D 14) B 15) E 16) A 17) C Match the following: 1. A) Parasympathetic nervous system 2. B) Sympathetic nervous system 18) Decreases heart rate Page Ref: 290, 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 19) Stimulates sweat glands to produce perspiration Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 20) Decreases digestive system activities Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 21) Constricts bronchioles of respiratory passageways Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 22) No effect on most blood vessels Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 23) Decreases urine output of the kidneys Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 24) Increases metabolic rate Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge 25) Increases the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla Page Ref: 292 Bloom’s: 1) Knowledge Answers: 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) B 25) B 7.5 Essay Questions 1) List and explain the three general functions of the nervous system Page Ref: 249-250 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 2) Explain how neurons and neuroglia are functionally different. Page Ref: 251, 253 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 3) Explain the difference between a polarized neuron and a depolarized neuron. Page Ref: 258, 260 Bloom’s: 2) Comprehension 4) The family of Mr. Sanchez has learned that his cerebrovascular accident (CVA, or stroke) impaired his ability to move the right side of his body. They were told the CVA involved the primary somatic sensory area in the right cerebral hemisphere. Did they receive correct information? Explain. Page Ref: 264, 275 Bloom’s: 3) Application 5) An 18-wheeler just nearly missed hitting Sam head-on while driving. Exasperated, he pulls over to the side of the road with his heart pounding. Which division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is taking control right now? What other symptoms do you think he’s experiencing Page Ref: 290-291 Bloom’s: 3) Application 6) How does a transient ischemic attack (TIA) differ from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA or stroke)? Page Ref: 275-276 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis 7) List and describe the protective structures found in the CNS. 8) Compare and contrast the functions of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. Page Ref: 251 Bloom’s: 4) Analysis