NUR2571 Professional Nursing 2 | NUR2571 Professional Nursing 2 Exam 2 week 7 study guide|PN 2 Exam 2 week 7 study guide
NUR2571 Professional Nursing 2 | NUR2571 Professional Nursing 2 Exam 2 week 7 study guide|PN 2 Exam 2 week 7 study guide
PN 2 Exam 2 week 7 study guide
Know what the secondary stage of the inflammatory response is
5. A client has a leg wound that is in the second stage of the inflammatory response. For what manifestation does the nurse assess?
a. Noticeable rubor
b. Purulent drainage
c. Swelling and pain
d. Warmth at the site
1. The student nurse learns that the most important function of inflammation and immunity is which purpose?
a. Destroying bacteria before damage occurs
b. Preventing any entry of foreign material
c. Providing protection against invading organisms
d. Regulating the process of self-tolerance
7. The nurse understands that which type of immunity is the longest acting?
a. Artificial active
c. Natural active
d. Natural passive
8. The nurse working with clients who have autoimmune diseases understands that what component of cell-mediated immunity is the problem?
a. CD4 cells
b. Cytotoxic T cells
c. Natural killer cells
d. Suppressor T cells
10. A nurse is assessing a client for acute rejection of a kidney transplant. What assessment finding requires the most rapid communication with the provider?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 18 mg/dL
b. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine
c. Creatinine of 3.9 mg/dL
d. Urine output of 340 mL/8 hr
What drugs are used to treat OA?
2. A nurse in the family clinic is teaching a client newly diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA) about drugs used to treat the disease. For which medication does the nurse plan primary teaching?
a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
b. Cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride (Flexeril)
c. Hyaluronate (Hyalgan)
d. Ibuprofen (Motrin)
1. A nurse is working with a community group promoting healthy aging. What
recommendation is best to help prevent osteoarthritis (OA)?
a. Avoid contact sports.
b. Get plenty of calcium.
c. Lose weight if needed.
d. Engage in weight-bearing exercise.
What is the post-operative care of a patient after a total hip replacement?
5. An older client has returned to the surgical unit after a total hip replacement. The client is confused and restless. What intervention by the nurse is most important to prevent injury?
a. Administer mild sedation.
b. Keep all four siderails up.
c. Restrain the clients hands.
d. Use an abduction pillow.
7. The nurse on the postoperative inpatient unit assesses a client after a total hip replacement. The clients surgical leg is visibly shorter than the other one and the client reports extreme pain. While a co-worker calls the surgeon, what action by the nurse is best?
a. Assess neurovascular status in both legs.
b. Elevate the affected leg and apply ice.
c. Prepare to administer pain medication.
d. Try to place the affected leg in abduction.
26. A nurse is discharging a client after a total hip replacement. What statement by the client indicates good potential for self-management?
a. I can bend down to pick something up.
b. I no longer need to do my exercises.
c. I will not sit with my legs crossed.
d. I wont wash my incision to keep it dry.
Know signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
11. A nurse works in the rheumatology clinic and sees clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which client should the nurse see first?
a. Client who reports jaw pain when eating
b. Client with a red, hot, swollen right wrist
c. Client who has a puffy-looking area behind the knee
d. Client with a worse joint deformity since the last visit
16. The nurse in the rheumatology clinic is assessing clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which client should the nurse see first?
a. Client taking celecoxib (Celebrex) and ranitidine (Zantac)
b. Client taking etanercept (Enbrel) with a red injection site
c. Client with a blood glucose of 190 mg/dL who is taking steroids
d. Client with a fever and cough who is taking tofacitinib (Xeljanz)
17. A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has an acutely swollen, red, and painful joint. What nonpharmacologic treatment does the nurse apply?
a. Heating pad
b. Ice packs
d. Wax dip
1. The nursing student studying rheumatoid arthritis (RA) learns which facts about the disease? (Select all that apply.)
a. It affects single joints only.
b. Antibodies lead to inflammation.
c. It consists of an autoimmune process.
d. Morning stiffness is rare.
e. Permanent damage is inevitable.
4. The nurse working in the rheumatology clinic assesses clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) for late manifestations. Which signs/symptoms are considered late manifestations of RA? (Select all that apply.)
b. Feltys syndrome
c. Joint deformity
d. Low-grade fever
e. Weight loss
Know what Sjogren’s syndrome is and how to diagnose it
13. The nurse working in the rheumatology clinic is seeing clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). What assessment would be most important for the client whose chart contains the diagnosis of Sjgrens syndrome?
a. Abdominal assessment
b. Oxygen saturation
c. Renal function studies
d. Visual acuity
Know signs and symptoms of lupus and how to treat it, also know complications that can occur due to lupus
18. The nurse on an inpatient rheumatology unit receives a hand-off report on a client with an acute exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which reported laboratory value requires the nurse to assess the client further?
a. Creatinine: 3.9 mg/dL
b. Platelet count: 210,000/mm3
c. Red blood cell count: 5.2/mm3
d. White blood cell count: 4400/mm3
19. A client who has had systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for many years is in the clinic reporting hip pain with ambulation. Which action by the nurse is best?
a. Assess medication records for steroid use.
b. Facilitate a consultation with physical therapy.
c. Measure the range of motion in both hips.
d. Notify the health care provider immediately.
20. A client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) was recently discharged from the hospital after an acute exacerbation. The client is in the clinic for a follow-up visit and is distraught about the possibility of another hospitalization disrupting the family. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Explain to the client that SLE is an unpredictable disease.
b. Help the client create backup plans to minimize disruption.
c. Offer to talk to the family and educate them about SLE.
d. Tell the client to remain compliant with treatment plans.
28. A client recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse evaluates that the client practices good self-care when the client makes which statement?
a. I always wear long sleeves, pants, and a hat when outdoors.
b. I try not to use cosmetics that contain any type of sunblock.
c. Since I tend to sweat a lot, I use a lot of baby powder.
d. Since I cant be exposed to the sun, I have been using a tanning bed.
35. A client has newly diagnosed systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What instruction by the nurse is most important?
a. Be sure you get enough sleep at night.
b. Eat plenty of high-protein, high-iron foods.
c. Notify your provider at once if you get a fever.
d. Weigh yourself every day on the same scale.
Know what actions can be taken to avoid infection after joint replacement surgery
25. A nurse is caring for a client after joint replacement surgery. What action by the nurse is most important to prevent wound infection?
a. Assess the clients white blood cell count.
b. Culture any drainage from the wound.
c. Monitor the clients temperature every 4 hours.
d. Use aseptic technique for dressing changes.
6. What action by the perioperative nursing staff is most important to prevent surgical wound infection in a client having a total joint replacement?
a. Administer preoperative antibiotic as ordered.
b. Assess the clients white blood cell count.
c. Instruct the client to shower the night before.
d. Monitor the clients temperature postoperatively.
Know pre-op teaching to give before hip replacement surgery
29. A client is scheduled to have a hip replacement. Preoperatively, the client is found to be mildly anemic and the surgeon states the client may need a blood transfusion during or after the surgery. What action by the preoperative nurse is most important?
a. Administer preoperative medications as prescribed.
b. Ensure that a consent for transfusion is on the chart.
c. Explain to the client how anemia affects healing.
d. Teach the client about foods high in protein and iron.
Know the normal lab values for WBC, RBC, Hemoglobin, and hematocrit
Know what Celebrex is and any contraindications
37. A client takes celecoxib (Celebrex) for chronic osteoarthritis in multiple joints. After a knee replacement, the health care provider has prescribed morphine sulfate for postoperative pain relief. The client also requests the celecoxib in addition to the morphine. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Consult with the health care provider about administering both drugs to the client.
b. Inform the client that the celecoxib will be started when he or she goes home.
c. Teach the client that, since morphine is stronger, celecoxib is not needed.
d. Tell the client he or she should not take both drugs at the same time.
Know the stages of HIV and the values of the CD4 cell count for each like stage 0,1,2,etc.
1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with human immune deficiency virus. The clients CD4 cell count is 399/mm3. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence.
b. Encourage the client to abstain from alcohol.
c. Facilitate genetic testing for CD4 CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors.
d. Help the client plan high-protein/iron meals.
4. A client with human immune deficiency virus is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4 cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action should the nurse take first?
a. Initiate Droplet Precautions for the client.
b. Notify the provider about the CD4 results.
c. Place the client under Airborne Precautions.
d. Use Standard Precautions to provide care.
1. A student nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.)
a. CD4 cells begin to create new HIV virus particles.
b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well.
c. Macrophages stop functioning properly.
d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death.
e. People with stage 1 HIV disease are not infectious to others.
Know what an epi pen is and why it is used. What other information should you tell the patient?
8. A nurse has educated a client on an epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen). What statement by the client indicates additional instruction is needed?
a. I dont need to go to the hospital after using it.
b. I must carry two EpiPens with me at all times.
c. I will write the expiration date on my calendar.
d. This can be injected right through my clothes.
What are beta blockers and what do they do?
2. A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment should the nurse expect to find?
a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 mm Hg to 132/60 mm Hg
b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 breaths/min to 14 breaths/min
c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96%
d. Pulse decreased from 100 beats/min to 80 beats/min
What are the signs and symptoms (clinical manifestations) of heart failure?
5. An emergency room nurse obtains the health history of a client. Which statement by the client should alert the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure?
a. I get short of breath when I climb stairs.
b. I see halos floating around my head.
c. I have trouble remembering things.
d. I have lost weight over the past month.
What are the signs and symptoms (clinical manifestations) of a myocardial infarction?
7. A nurse assesses an older adult client who is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect?
a. Excruciating pain on inspiration
b. Left lateral chest wall pain
c. Disorientation and confusion
d. Numbness and tingling of the arm
11. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart. The clients health history includes a previous myocardial infarction and pacemaker implantation. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Schedule an electrocardiogram just before the MRI.
b. Notify the health care provider before scheduling the MRI.
c. Call the physician and request a laboratory draw for cardiac enzymes.
d. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake the day before the MRI.
16. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning. How should the nurse respond?
a. Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it.
b. The provider has prescribed an antacid for you to take every morning.
c. What do you understand about what happened to you?
d. When did you start experiencing this indigestion?
What is a cardiac angiography and what complications can occur?
8. A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site.
b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids.
c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg.
d. Document the finding as left pedal pulse of 1/4.
Know locations to auscultate for cardiac assessment
20. A nurse assesses a client who has aortic regurgitation. In which location in the illustration shown below should the nurse auscultate to best hear a cardiac murmur related to aortic regurgitation?
a. Location A
b. Location B
c. Location C
d. Location D
Know the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure and what causes it?
1. A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for the development of left-sided heart failure?
a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis
b. A 42-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension
c. A 59-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes daily
d. A 70-year-old man who had a cerebral vascular accident
2. A nurse assesses a client in an outpatient clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to the possibility of left-sided heart failure?
a. I have been drinking more water than usual.
b. I am awakened by the need to urinate at night.
c. I must stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath.
d. I have experienced blurred vision on several occasions.
1. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
a. Pulmonary crackles
b. Confusion, restlessness
c. Pulmonary hypertension
d. Dependent edema
e. Cough that worsens at night
Left-sided heart failure symptoms include respiratory symptoms. Orthopnea, coughing, and difficulty breathing all could be results of left-sided heart failure.
What does a S3 gallop indicate? When do you see this? And why?
4. While assessing a client on a cardiac unit, a nurse identifies the presence of an S3 gallop. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure.
b. Document this as a normal finding.
c. Call the health care provider immediately.
d. Transfer the client to the intensive care unit.
What is vasotec? What are things the patient should know about it?
6. A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure who has been prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching?
a. Avoid using salt substitutes.
b. Take your medication with food.
c. Avoid using aspirin-containing products.
d. Check your pulse daily.
What is imdur and what are things the patient should know about it?
8. A nurse assesses a client after administering isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur). The client reports a headache. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Initiate oxygen therapy.
b. Hold the next dose of Imdur.
c. Instruct the client to drink water.
d. Administer PRN acetaminophen.
Know the normal values for cholesterol, LDL, HDL, and triglycerides
2. The nurse is reviewing the lipid panel of a male client who has atherosclerosis. Which finding is most concerning?
a. Cholesterol: 126 mg/dL
b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C): 48 mg/dL
c. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C): 122 mg/dL
d. Triglycerides: 198 mg/dL
Know what Coumadin is and any contraindications
12. A client is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and asks the nurse if taking St. Johns wort is acceptable. What response by the nurse is best?
a. No, it may interfere with the warfarin.
b. There isnt any information about that.
c. Why would you want to take that?
d. Yes, it is a good supplement for you.
24. A client has been diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis and is to be discharged on warfarin (Coumadin). The client is adamant about refusing the drug because its dangerous. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Assess the reason behind the clients fear.
b. Remind the client about laboratory monitoring.
c. Tell the client drugs are safer today than before.
d. Warn the client about consequences of noncompliance.
25. A client with a history of heart failure and hypertension is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The client is on lisinopril (Prinivil) and warfarin (Coumadin). The client reports new-onset cough. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Assess the clients lung sounds and oxygenation.
b. Instruct the client on another antihypertensive.
c. Obtain a set of vital signs and document them.
d. Remind the client that cough is a side effect of Prinivil.
5. A client is being discharged on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. What discharge instructions is the nurse required to provide? (Select all that apply.)
a. Dietary restrictions
b. Driving restrictions
c. Follow-up laboratory monitoring
d. Possible drug-drug interactions
e. Reason to take medication
Know what the post op care is for femoral-popliteal bypass and any complications that can occur
16. A client is 4 hours postoperative after a femoropopliteal bypass. The client reports throbbing leg pain on the affected side, rated as 7/10. What action by the nurse takes priority?
a. Administer pain medication as ordered.
b. Assess distal pulses and skin color.
c. Document the findings in the clients chart.
d. Notify the surgeon immediately.
17. A client had a femoropopliteal bypass graft with a synthetic graft. What action by the nurse is most important to prevent wound infection?
a. Appropriate hand hygiene before giving care
b. Assessing the clients temperature every 4 hours
c. Clean technique when changing dressings
d. Monitoring the clients daily white blood cell count
2. A nurse is preparing a client for a femoropopliteal bypass operation. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Administering preoperative medication
b. Ensuring the consent is signed
c. Marking pulses with a pen
d. Raising the siderails on the bed
e. Recording baseline vital signs
Know what a DVT is and the treatment, and the clinical manifestations
20. A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What nursing assessment indicates a priority outcome has been met?
a. Ambulates with assistance
b. Oxygen saturation of 98%
c. Pain of 2/10 after medication
d. Verbalizing risk factors
21. A client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What comfort measure does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
a. Ambulate the client.
b. Apply a warm moist pack.
c. Massage the clients leg.
d. Provide an ice pack.
3. A client has been bedridden for several days after major abdominal surgery. What action does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prevention? (Select all that apply.)
a. Apply compression stockings.
b. Assist with ambulation.
c. Encourage coughing and deep breathing.
d. Offer fluids frequently.
e. Teach leg exercises.
27. A client has been treated for a deep vein thrombus and today presents to the clinic with petechiae. Laboratory results show a platelet count of 42,000/mm3. The nurse reviews the clients medication list to determine if the client is taking which drug?
a. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
b. Salicylates (aspirin)
c. Unfractionated heparin
d. Warfarin (Coumadin)
What is peripheral arterial disease and what is the treatment, what are the symptoms?
27. A client has peripheral arterial disease (PAD). What statement by the client indicates misunderstanding about self-management activities?
a. I can use a heating pad on my legs if its set on low.
b. I should not cross my legs when sitting or lying down.
c. I will go out and buy some warm, heavy socks to wear.
d. Its going to be really hard but I will stop smoking.
15. A client had a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty for peripheral arterial disease. What assessment finding by the nurse indicates a priority outcome for this client has been met?
a. Pain rated as 2/10 after medication
b. Distal pulse on affected extremity 2 /4
c. Remains on bedrest as directed
d. Verbalizes understanding of procedure
10. A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The client states walking five blocks is possible without pain. What question asked next by the nurse will give the best information?
a. Could you walk further than that a few months ago?
b. Do you walk mostly uphill, downhill, or on flat surfaces?
c. Have you ever considered swimming instead of walking?
d. How much pain medication do you take each day?
What is Xarelto? What is it used for?
2. A client is receiving rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and asks the nurse to explain how it works. What response by the nurse is best?
a. It inhibits thrombin.
b. It inhibits fibrinogen.
c. It thins your blood.
d. It works against vitamin K.
What is sickle cell crisis? How is it treated? What are the clinical manifestations?
1. A nurse caring for a client with sickle cell disease (SCD) reviews the clients laboratory work. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Creatinine: 2.9 mg/dL
b. Hematocrit: 30%
c. Sodium: 147 mEq/L
d. White blood cell count: 12,000/mm3
2. A client hospitalized with sickle cell crisis frequently asks for opioid pain medications, often shortly after receiving a dose. The nurses on the unit believe the client is drug seeking. When the client requests pain medication, what action by the nurse is best?
a. Give the client pain medication if it is time for another dose.
b. Instruct the client not to request pain medication too early.
c. Request the provider leave a prescription for a placebo.
d. Tell the client it is too early to have more pain medication.
3. A client in sickle cell crisis is dehydrated and in the emergency department. The nurse plans to start an IV. Which fluid choice is best?
a. 0.45% normal saline
b. 0.9% normal saline
c. Dextrose 50% (D50)
d. Lactated Ringers solution
4. A client presents to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What intervention by the nurse takes priority?
a. Administer oxygen.
b. Apply an oximetry probe.
c. Give pain medication.
d. Start an IV line.
24. A client with sickle cell disease (SCD) takes hydroxyurea (Droxia). The client presents to the clinic reporting an increase in fatigue. What laboratory result should the nurse report immediately?
a. Hematocrit: 25%
b. Hemoglobin: 9.2 mg/dL
c. Potassium: 3.2 mEq/L
d. White blood cell count: 38,000/mm3
1. A nurse working with clients with sickle cell disease (SCD) teaches about self-management to prevent exacerbations and sickle cell crises. What factors should clients be taught to avoid? (Select all that apply.)
c. Extreme stress
d. High altitudes
23. A client admitted for sickle cell crisis is distraught after learning her child also has the disease. What response by the nurse is best?
a. Both you and the father are equally responsible for passing it on.
b. I can see you are upset. I can stay here with you a while if you like.
c. Its not your fault; there is no way to know who will have this disease.
d. There are many good treatments for sickle cell disease these days.
22. A client has a sickle cell crisis with extreme lower extremity pain. What comfort measure does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
a. Apply ice packs to the clients legs.
b. Elevate the clients legs on pillows.
c. Keep the lower extremities warm.
d. Place elastic bandage wraps on the clients legs.
What is leukemia and how is it treated?
12. The nurse is caring for a client with leukemia who has the priority problem of fatigue. What action by the client best indicates that an important goal for this problem has been met?
a. Doing activities of daily living (ADLs) using rest periods
b. Helping plan a daily activity schedule
c. Requesting a sleeping pill at night
d. Telling visitors to leave when fatigued
26. A client has frequent hospitalizations for leukemia and is worried about functioning as a parent to four small children. What action by the nurse would be most helpful?
a. Assist the client to make sick day plans for household responsibilities.
b. Determine if there are family members or friends who can help the client.
c. Help the client inform friends and family that they will have to help out.
d. Refer the client to a social worker in order to investigate respite child care.
8. A nursing student is caring for a client with leukemia. The student asks why the client is still at risk for infection when the clients white blood cell count (WBC) is high. What response by the registered nurse is best?
a. If the WBCs are high, there already is an infection present.
b. The client is in a blast crisis and has too many WBCs.
c. There must be a mistake; the WBCs should be very low.
d. Those WBCs are abnormal and dont provide protection.
25. A nurse is caring for four clients with leukemia. After hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first?
a. Client who had two bloody diarrhea stools this morning
b. Client who has been premedicated for nausea prior to chemotherapy
c. Client with a respiratory rate change from 18 to 22 breaths/min
d. Client with an unchanged lesion to the lower right lateral malleolus
What is ITP? How is it treated? What are the clinical manifestations?
16. A client with autoimmune idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has had a splenectomy and returned to the surgical unit 2 hours ago. The nurse assesses the client and finds the abdominal dressing saturated with blood. What action is most important?
a. Preparing to administer a blood transfusion
b. Reinforcing the dressing and documenting findings
c. Removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site
d. Taking a set of vital signs and notifying the surgeon
Know the normal value for platelet count and what does it mean if it is high or low?
17. A client has a platelet count of 9000/mm3. The nurse finds the client confused and mumbling. What action takes priority?
a. Calling the Rapid Response Team
b. Delegating taking a set of vital signs
c. Instituting bleeding precautions
d. Placing the client on bedrest
4. A client has a platelet count of 25,000/mm3. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Assist with oral hygiene using a firm toothbrush.
b. Give the client an enema if he or she is constipated.
c. Help the client choose soft foods from the menu.
d. Shave the male client with an electric razor.
e. Use a lift sheet when needed to re-position the client.
Know complications of a blood transfusion and how to treat it
18. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What action is most important?
a. Correctly identifying client using two identifiers
b. Ensuring informed consent is obtained if required
c. Hanging the blood product with Ringers lactate
d. Staying with the client for the entire transfusion
19. A nurse is preparing to hang a blood transfusion. Which action is most important?
a. Documenting the transfusion
b. Placing the client on NPO status
c. Placing the client in isolation
d. Putting on a pair of gloves
20. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops anxiety and low back pain. After stopping the transfusion, what action by the nurse is most important?
a. Documenting the events in the clients medical record
b. Double-checking the client and blood product identification
c. Placing the client on strict bedrest until the pain subsides
d. Reviewing the clients medical record for known allergies
6. A student nurse is learning about blood transfusion compatibilities. What information does this include? (Select all that apply.)
a. Donor blood type A can donate to recipient blood type AB.
b. Donor blood type B can donate to recipient blood type O.
c. Donor blood type AB can donate to anyone.
d. Donor blood type O can donate to anyone.
e. Donor blood type A can donate to recipient blood type B.
7. A client with chronic anemia has had many blood transfusions. What medications does the nurse anticipate teaching the client about adding to the regimen? (Select all that apply.)
a. Azacitidine (Vidaza)
b. Darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp)
c. Decitabine (Dacogen)
d. Epoetin alfa (Epogen)
e. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
8. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to an older adult. Understanding age-related changes, what alterations in the usual protocol are necessary for the nurse to implement? (Select all that apply.)
a. Assess vital signs more often.
b. Hold other IV fluids running.
c. Premedicate to prevent reactions.
d. Transfuse smaller bags of blood.
e. Transfuse each unit over 8 hours.
What is B12 anemia and what are some complications of this?
28. The nurse assesses a clients oral cavity and makes the discovery shown in the photo below:
What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Encourage the client to have genetic testing.
b. Instruct the client on high-fiber foods.
c. Place the client in protective precautions.
d. Teach the client about cobalamin therapy.
What does the nurse teach AIDS patients to help them avoid opportunistic infections?
14. A client has been hospitalized with an opportunistic infection secondary to acquired immune deficiency syndrome. The clients partner is listed as the emergency contact, but the clients mother insists that she should be listed instead. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Contact the social worker to assist the client with advance directives.
b. Ignore the mother; the client does not want her to be involved.
c. Let the client know, gently, that nurses cannot be involved in these disputes.
d. Tell the client that, legally, the mother is the emergency contact.
2. Which findings are AIDS-defining characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
a. CD4 cell count less than 200/mm3 or less than 14%
b. Infection with Pneumocystis jiroveci
c. Positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV)
d. Presence of HIV wasting syndrome
e. Taking antiretroviral medications
What are complications from a right-sided heart catheterization?
6. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a right-sided heart catheterization. For which complications of this procedure should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Myocardial infarction
e. Cardiac tamponade
3. A nurse assesses a client admitted to the cardiac unit. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure?
a. I sleep with four pillows at night.
b. My shoes fit really tight lately.
c. I wake up coughing every night.
d. I have trouble catching my breath.
5. A nurse cares for a client with right-sided heart failure. The client asks, Why do I need to weigh myself every day? How should the nurse respond?
a. Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid.
b. Daily weights will help us make sure that youre eating properly.
c. The hospital requires that all inpatients be weighed daily.
d. You need to lose weight to decrease the incidence of heart failure.
What are complications from a heart transplant?
17. After teaching a client who is recovering from a heart transplant to change positions slowly, the client asks, Why is this important? How should the nurse respond?
a. Rapid position changes can create shear and friction forces, which can tear out your internal vascular sutures.
b. Your new vascular connections are more sensitive to position changes, leading to increased intravascular pressure and dizziness.
c. Your new heart is not connected to the nervous system and is unable to respond to decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes.
d. While your heart is recovering, blood flow is diverted away from the brain, increasing the risk for stroke when you stand up.
8. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a heart transplant. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of heart transplant rejection? (Select all that apply.)
a. Shortness of breath
b. Abdominal bloating
c. New-onset bradycardia
d. Increased ejection fraction
What are risk factors for developing leukemia?
2. A student studying leukemias learns the risk factors for developing this disorder. Which risk factors does this include? (Select all that apply.)
a. Chemical exposure
b. Genetically modified foods
c. Ionizing radiation exposure
e. Viral infections
Know how to calculate the drop/min formula
A nurse is assessing an older patient for the presence of infection. The patients temperature is 97.6 F (36.4 C). What response by the nurse is the best?
12. A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is on the postoperative nursing unit after having elective surgery. The client reports that one arm feels like pins and needles and that the neck is very painful since returning from surgery. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Assist the client to change positions.
b. Document the findings in the clients chart.
c. Encourage range of motion of the neck.
d. Notify the provider immediately.
14. The nurse is working with a client who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The nurse has identified the priority problem of poor body image for the client. What finding by the nurse indicates goals for this client problem are being met?
a. Attends meetings of a book club
b. Has a positive outlook on life
c. Takes medication as directed
d. Uses assistive devices to protect joints
15. A client is started on etanercept (Enbrel). What teaching by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Giving subcutaneous injections
b. Having a chest x-ray once a year
c. Taking the medication with food
d. Using heat on the injection site
22. The nurse is teaching a client with gout dietary strategies to prevent exacerbations or other problems. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Drink 1 to 2 liters of water each day.
b. Have 10 to 12 ounces of juice a day.
c. Liver is a good source of iron.
d. Never eat hard cheeses or sardines.
23. A nurse is teaching a client with psoriatic arthritis about the medication golimumab (Simponi). What information is most important to include?
a. Avoid large crowds or people who are ill.
b. Stay upright for 1 hour after taking this drug.
c. This drug may cause your hair to fall out.
d. You may double the dose if pain is severe.
24. A client in the orthopedic clinic has a self-reported history of osteoarthritis. The client reports a low-grade fever that started when the weather changed and several joints started acting up, especially both hips and knees. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Assess the client for the presence of subcutaneous nodules or Bakers cysts.
b. Inspect the clients feet and hands for podagra and tophi on fingers and toes.
c. Prepare to teach the client about an acetaminophen (Tylenol) regimen.
d. Reassure the client that the problems will fade as the weather changes again.
31. A client is getting out of bed into the chair for the first time after an uncemented hip replacement. What action by the nurse is most important?
a. Have adequate help to transfer the client.
b. Provide socks so the client can slide easier.
c. Tell the client full weight bearing is allowed.
d. Use a footstool to elevate the clients leg.
36. A client comes to the family medicine clinic and reports joint pain and stiffness. The nurse is asked to assess the client for Heberdens nodules. What assessment technique is correct?
a. Inspect the clients distal finger joints.
b. Palpate the clients abdomen for tenderness.
c. Palpate the clients upper body lymph nodes.
d. Perform range of motion on the clients wrists.
6. A client with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action should the nurse take first?
a. Ask the client about travel to any foreign countries.
b. Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen.
c. Determine if the client has any new sexual partners.
d. Request information about new living quarters or pets.
7. A client is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. The client reports shortness of breath with activity and extreme fatigue. What intervention is best to promote comfort?
a. Administer sleeping medication.
b. Perform most activities for the client.
c. Increase the clients oxygen during activity.
d. Pace activities, allowing for adequate rest.
8. A client with HIV wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem?
a. Chooses high-protein food
b. Has decreased oral discomfort
c. Eats 90% of meals and snacks
d. Has a weight gain of 2 pounds/1 month
9. A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposis sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important?
a. Adhering to Standard Precautions
b. Assessing tolerance to dressing changes
c. Performing hand hygiene before and after care
d. Disposing of soiled dressings properly
1. A nurse works in an allergy clinic. What task performed by the nurse takes priority?
a. Checking emergency equipment each morning
b. Ensuring informed consent is obtained as needed
c. Providing educational materials in several languages
d. Teaching clients how to manage their allergies
10. A client is in the hospital and receiving IV antibiotics. When the nurse answers the clients call light, the client presents an appearance as shown below:
What action by the nurse takes priority?
a. Administer epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3 mg IV push immediately.
b. Apply oxygen by facemask at 100% and a pulse oximeter.
c. Ensure a patent airway while calling the Rapid Response Team.
d. Reassure the client that these manifestations will go away.