(NGN) ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED
2023 -2024 FORM A, B AND C COMPLETE EXAMS/
ACTUAL QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) GRADED A+
TABLE OF CONTENT:
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM FORM A………...2
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM FORM B ….…...73
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM FORM C ……...110
pg. 1
,The nurse is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following manifestations is
an indication of hypoglycemia?
a. Hypertonia
b. Increased feeding
c. Hyperthermia
d. Respiratory distress - Correct Answer - d. Respiratory distress
Late preterm newborns are at an increased risk for hypoglycemia due to decreased
glycogen stores and immature insulin secretion. Respiratory distress is a manifestation
of hypoglycemia. Other manifestations of hypoglycemia include an abnormal cry,
jitteriness, lethargy, poor feeding, apnea, and seizures.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has mild gestational
HTN. What finding should the nurse identify as the priority?
a. 480 mL urine output in 24 hrs.
b. 1+ protein in the urine
c. +2 edema of the feet
d. BP 144/92 - Correct Answer - a. 480 mL urine output in 24 hrs.
When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should
determine that the priority finding is 480 mL of urine output in 24 hr. because the
minimum acceptable urine output in an adult client is 30 mL/hr. This can indicate
progression of preeclampsia to preeclampsia with severe features, which requires
immediate intervention. Therefore, this is the priority finding.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 wks. gestation and has hydatidiform mole.
What findings should the nurse expect?
a. hypothermia
b. dark brown vaginal discharge
c. fetal heart tones
d. decreased urinary output - Correct Answer - b. dark brown vaginal discharge
A hydatidiform mole, or a molar pregnancy, is a benign proliferative growth of the
chorionic villi, which gives rise to multiple cysts. The products of conception transform
pg. 2
,into a large number of edematous, fluid-filled vesicles. As cells slough off the uterine
wall, vaginal discharge is usually dark brown and can contain grapelike clusters.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum following a vacuum-assisted birth.
For what finding should the nurse monitor to identify a cervical laceration?
a. a gush of rubra lochia when the nurse massages the uterus
b. continuous lochia flow and flaccid uterus
c. slow trickle of bright vaginal bleeding and a firm fundus
d. report of increasing pain and pressure in the perineal area - Correct Answer - c. slow
trickle of bright vaginal bleeding and a firm fundus
The nurse should monitor for bright red bleeding as a slow trickle, oozing or outright
bleeding, and a firm fundus to identify a cervical laceration.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is postpartum and has cardiac disease. For
what script should the nurse seek clarification?
a. initiate bedrest with HOB elevated
b. initiate high-fiber diet for client
c. monitor clients wt. wily
d. monitor client's I&O - Correct Answer - c. monitor clients wt. wily
The nurse should weigh the client daily to monitor for fluid overload.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mag sulfate by continuous IV. What meds
should the nurse have available at bedside?
a. naloxone
b. protamine sulfate
c. calcium gluconate
d. atropine - Correct Answer - c. calcium gluconate
The nurse should have calcium gluconate available to give to a client who is receiving
magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion in case of magnesium sulfate toxicity. The
pg. 3
, nurse should monitor the client for a respiratory rate less than or equal to 12/min,
muscle weakness, and depressed deep-tendon reflexes.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a soft uterus and increased lochia. What meds
should the nurse plan to administer to promote uterine contractions?
a. mag sulfate
b. methylergonovine
c. terbutaline
d. nifedipine - Correct Answer - b. methylergonovine
The nurse should administer methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, which promotes
uterine contractions.
The nurse is assessing a client who gave birth vaginally 12 hr. ago and palpates their
uterus to the right above the umbilicus. Which of the following interventions should the
nurse perform?
a. Reassess the client in 2 hr.
b. Administer simethicone
c. Assist the client to empty their bladder
d. Instruct the client to lie on their right side - Correct Answer - c. Assist the client to
empty their bladder
The nurse should assist the client to empty their bladder because the assessment
findings indicate that the client's bladder is distended. This can prevent the uterus from
contracting, resulting in increased vaginal bleeding or postpartum hemorrhage.
A nurse is administering a rubella immunization to a client who is 2 days postpartum.
What statement indicates to the nurse the client needs further instruction?
a. I cannot receive rubella immunization during pregnancy
b. I can conceive anytime I want after 10 days
c. I can continue to breastfeed
pg. 4
2023 -2024 FORM A, B AND C COMPLETE EXAMS/
ACTUAL QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) GRADED A+
TABLE OF CONTENT:
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM FORM A………...2
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM FORM B ….…...73
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM FORM C ……...110
pg. 1
,The nurse is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following manifestations is
an indication of hypoglycemia?
a. Hypertonia
b. Increased feeding
c. Hyperthermia
d. Respiratory distress - Correct Answer - d. Respiratory distress
Late preterm newborns are at an increased risk for hypoglycemia due to decreased
glycogen stores and immature insulin secretion. Respiratory distress is a manifestation
of hypoglycemia. Other manifestations of hypoglycemia include an abnormal cry,
jitteriness, lethargy, poor feeding, apnea, and seizures.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has mild gestational
HTN. What finding should the nurse identify as the priority?
a. 480 mL urine output in 24 hrs.
b. 1+ protein in the urine
c. +2 edema of the feet
d. BP 144/92 - Correct Answer - a. 480 mL urine output in 24 hrs.
When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should
determine that the priority finding is 480 mL of urine output in 24 hr. because the
minimum acceptable urine output in an adult client is 30 mL/hr. This can indicate
progression of preeclampsia to preeclampsia with severe features, which requires
immediate intervention. Therefore, this is the priority finding.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 wks. gestation and has hydatidiform mole.
What findings should the nurse expect?
a. hypothermia
b. dark brown vaginal discharge
c. fetal heart tones
d. decreased urinary output - Correct Answer - b. dark brown vaginal discharge
A hydatidiform mole, or a molar pregnancy, is a benign proliferative growth of the
chorionic villi, which gives rise to multiple cysts. The products of conception transform
pg. 2
,into a large number of edematous, fluid-filled vesicles. As cells slough off the uterine
wall, vaginal discharge is usually dark brown and can contain grapelike clusters.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum following a vacuum-assisted birth.
For what finding should the nurse monitor to identify a cervical laceration?
a. a gush of rubra lochia when the nurse massages the uterus
b. continuous lochia flow and flaccid uterus
c. slow trickle of bright vaginal bleeding and a firm fundus
d. report of increasing pain and pressure in the perineal area - Correct Answer - c. slow
trickle of bright vaginal bleeding and a firm fundus
The nurse should monitor for bright red bleeding as a slow trickle, oozing or outright
bleeding, and a firm fundus to identify a cervical laceration.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is postpartum and has cardiac disease. For
what script should the nurse seek clarification?
a. initiate bedrest with HOB elevated
b. initiate high-fiber diet for client
c. monitor clients wt. wily
d. monitor client's I&O - Correct Answer - c. monitor clients wt. wily
The nurse should weigh the client daily to monitor for fluid overload.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mag sulfate by continuous IV. What meds
should the nurse have available at bedside?
a. naloxone
b. protamine sulfate
c. calcium gluconate
d. atropine - Correct Answer - c. calcium gluconate
The nurse should have calcium gluconate available to give to a client who is receiving
magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion in case of magnesium sulfate toxicity. The
pg. 3
, nurse should monitor the client for a respiratory rate less than or equal to 12/min,
muscle weakness, and depressed deep-tendon reflexes.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a soft uterus and increased lochia. What meds
should the nurse plan to administer to promote uterine contractions?
a. mag sulfate
b. methylergonovine
c. terbutaline
d. nifedipine - Correct Answer - b. methylergonovine
The nurse should administer methylergonovine, an ergot alkaloid, which promotes
uterine contractions.
The nurse is assessing a client who gave birth vaginally 12 hr. ago and palpates their
uterus to the right above the umbilicus. Which of the following interventions should the
nurse perform?
a. Reassess the client in 2 hr.
b. Administer simethicone
c. Assist the client to empty their bladder
d. Instruct the client to lie on their right side - Correct Answer - c. Assist the client to
empty their bladder
The nurse should assist the client to empty their bladder because the assessment
findings indicate that the client's bladder is distended. This can prevent the uterus from
contracting, resulting in increased vaginal bleeding or postpartum hemorrhage.
A nurse is administering a rubella immunization to a client who is 2 days postpartum.
What statement indicates to the nurse the client needs further instruction?
a. I cannot receive rubella immunization during pregnancy
b. I can conceive anytime I want after 10 days
c. I can continue to breastfeed
pg. 4
