Question 1
A client taking furosemide for heart failure is at risk for which of the following
electrolyte imbalances?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause increased potassium
excretion, leading to hypokalemia.
Question 2
Which of the following is an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia
B. Visual disturbances
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Dry mouth
Answer: C. Nausea and vomiting
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are common early signs of digoxin toxicity, often
accompanied by anorexia and fatigue.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine IV for pain management. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer over 5 seconds.
B. Monitor respiratory status closely.
C. Dilute with 50 mL of saline.
D. Encourage deep breathing exercises during administration.
,Answer: B. Monitor respiratory status closely.
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so it is critical to monitor
the client’s respiratory rate and effort during administration.
Question 4
When administering insulin lispro, the nurse knows that the medication should be
given:
A. 30 minutes before a meal.
B. Immediately after a meal.
C. Within 15 minutes of a meal.
D. At bedtime.
Answer: C. Within 15 minutes of a meal.
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered close
to mealtime to manage postprandial glucose levels effectively.
Question 5
A client is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse include in
the client’s teaching?
A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
B. Use an electric razor.
C. Take the medication with antacids.
D. Increase fluid intake.
Answer: B. Use an electric razor.
Rationale: Clients on anticoagulants like warfarin are at an increased risk for
bleeding; using an electric razor reduces the risk of cuts.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effects of albuterol. Which of the
following should the client report immediately?
A. Tremors
, B. Tachycardia
C. Chest pain
D. Dry mouth
Answer: C. Chest pain
Rationale: Chest pain may indicate a serious cardiovascular effect and should be
reported immediately.
Question 7
What is the primary action of naloxone?
A. It acts as a sedative.
B. It inhibits the metabolism of opioids.
C. It blocks the effects of opioids.
D. It promotes the elimination of opioids.
Answer: C. It blocks the effects of opioids.
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid
toxicity, including respiratory depression.
Question 8
A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. The nurse should inform the
client that the medication can cause which of the following?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Orange discoloration of body fluids
C. Increased appetite
D. Insomnia
Answer: B. Orange discoloration of body fluids
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and
tears, which is harmless but should be anticipated.
Question 9
A client taking furosemide for heart failure is at risk for which of the following
electrolyte imbalances?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause increased potassium
excretion, leading to hypokalemia.
Question 2
Which of the following is an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia
B. Visual disturbances
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Dry mouth
Answer: C. Nausea and vomiting
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are common early signs of digoxin toxicity, often
accompanied by anorexia and fatigue.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine IV for pain management. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer over 5 seconds.
B. Monitor respiratory status closely.
C. Dilute with 50 mL of saline.
D. Encourage deep breathing exercises during administration.
,Answer: B. Monitor respiratory status closely.
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so it is critical to monitor
the client’s respiratory rate and effort during administration.
Question 4
When administering insulin lispro, the nurse knows that the medication should be
given:
A. 30 minutes before a meal.
B. Immediately after a meal.
C. Within 15 minutes of a meal.
D. At bedtime.
Answer: C. Within 15 minutes of a meal.
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered close
to mealtime to manage postprandial glucose levels effectively.
Question 5
A client is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse include in
the client’s teaching?
A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
B. Use an electric razor.
C. Take the medication with antacids.
D. Increase fluid intake.
Answer: B. Use an electric razor.
Rationale: Clients on anticoagulants like warfarin are at an increased risk for
bleeding; using an electric razor reduces the risk of cuts.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effects of albuterol. Which of the
following should the client report immediately?
A. Tremors
, B. Tachycardia
C. Chest pain
D. Dry mouth
Answer: C. Chest pain
Rationale: Chest pain may indicate a serious cardiovascular effect and should be
reported immediately.
Question 7
What is the primary action of naloxone?
A. It acts as a sedative.
B. It inhibits the metabolism of opioids.
C. It blocks the effects of opioids.
D. It promotes the elimination of opioids.
Answer: C. It blocks the effects of opioids.
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid
toxicity, including respiratory depression.
Question 8
A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. The nurse should inform the
client that the medication can cause which of the following?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Orange discoloration of body fluids
C. Increased appetite
D. Insomnia
Answer: B. Orange discoloration of body fluids
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and
tears, which is harmless but should be anticipated.
Question 9
