Chamberlain NR 507 Final Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Final Exam (2020): Advanced Pathophysiology(This is the latest version, download to score A)
NR507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing
Chamberlain NR 507 Final Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology
Question 1 What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
a)	Herpes simplex virus type 6
b)	Herpes simplex virus type 2
c)	Human papillomavirus
d)	Human immunodeficiency virus
Question 2 Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma?
a)	An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
b)	A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging
c)	A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
d)	An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 3 The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
Question 4 Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
a)	Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
b)	The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults.
c)	The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults.
d)	The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 5 Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long?
a)	6 to 8 weeks
b)	8 to 12 months
c)	Until the iron level is normal
d)	The rest of one’s life
Question 6 Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
a)	Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
b)	Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging
c)	Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
d)	Pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 7 What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
a)	Nasal turbinates
b)	Alveolar macrophages
d)	Irritant receptors on the nares
Question 8 As stated in the Frank-Starling law, a direct relationship exists between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole.
a)	Pressure; force Volume;
b)	strength Viscosity;
c)	force Viscosity; strength
Question 9 The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
a)	2 years
b)	1 year
c)	10 months
d)	5 months
Question 10 Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
a)	Blood vessels
b)	Epithelial cells
c)	Connective tissue
d)	Glandular tissue
Question 11 Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia?
a)	Increasing rate and depth of breathing
b)	Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction
c)	Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen
d)	Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin
Question 12 What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
c)	Spina bifida occulta
Question 13 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
Question 14 After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months?
a)	1 to 2
b)	6 to 14
c)	18 to 20
d)	24 to 36
Question 15 Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
d)	Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Question 16 Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process?
Question 17 Where are alveolar macrophages found?
c)	Gastrointestinal tract
Question 18 Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
a)	Decreased flow resistance
b)	Fewer alveoli
c)	Stiffening of the chest wall
d)	Improved elastic recoil
Question 19 An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?
a)	Intermittent murmur
b)	Lack of symptoms
c)	Need for surgical repair
d)	Triad of congenital defects
Question 20 Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor?
Question 21 A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
a)	Hemolytic shock
c)	Necrotizing vasculitis
d)	Systemic erythematosus
Question 22 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?
a)	Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
b)	Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
c)	Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
d)	Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.
Question 23 What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing?
c)	Cranial meningocele
Question 24 At birth, which statement is true?
a)	Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
b)	Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung.
c)	Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
d)	Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Question 25 What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
c)	Hair loss
d)	Weight loss
Question 26 The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they:
a)	Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
b)	Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse.
c)	Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse.
d)	Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
Question 27 Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?
a)	Heat cramps
b)	Heat stroke
c)	Malignant hyperthermia
d)	Heat exhaustion
Question 28 Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of which nervous system?
Question 29 What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?
Question 30 What is the leading cause of infertility in women?
a)	Pelvic inflammatory disease
d)	Polycystic ovary syndrome
Question 31 Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia?
a)	Parietal lobe
b)	Limbic system
c)	Temporal lobe
d)	Hypothalamus .
Question 32 What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands?
a)	Enhancement of the motility of sperm
b)	Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule
c)	Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria
d)	Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse
Question 33 People with gout are at high risk for which co-morbid condition?
a)	Renal calculi
b)	Joint trauma
d)	Hearing loss
Question 34 The tear in a ligament is referred to as a:
Question 35 Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk?
Question 36 Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism?
Question 37 What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
a)	Reduced excretion of purines
b)	Overproduction of uric acid
c)	Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels
d)	Overproduction of proteoglycans
Question 38 It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS):
a)	Is preceded by a viral illness.
b)	Involves a deficit in acetylcholine.
c)	Results in asymmetric paralysis.
d)	Is an outcome of HIV.
Question 39 The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?
a)	Osteogenesis imperfecta
d)	Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Question 40 Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
a)	Increased consumption of dairy produces
b)	Increased consumption of foods containing vitamin C
c)	Decreased consumption of foods high in fat
d)	Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring
Question 41 The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder?
a)	Night terrors
Question 42 Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer?
a)	Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b)	Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
c)	Herpes simplex II virus (HSV)
d)	Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Question 43 What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
a)	Sharpey fibers
b)	Collagen fibers
d)	Elastin fibers
Question 44 2/ 2 pts Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
Question 45 Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
a)	Vitamin B6
b)	Vitamin B1
c)	Vitamin K
d)	Folic acid
Question 46 What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
a)	Breast enlargement
b)	Growth of pubic hair
d)	Vaginal discharge
Question 47 Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure?
b)	Sebaceous glands
c)	Meibomian glands
Question 48 What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?
b)	Cri du chat
Question 49 A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
Question 50 Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by:
a)	Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces
b)	Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells
c)	Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas
d)	Stimulating the liver to increase glucose production
Question 51 Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome?
a)	Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair
b)	An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
c)	High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
d)	Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness
Question 52 Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
a)	Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina.
b)	Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus.
c)	Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus.
d)	Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.
Question 53 How can glaucoma cause blindness?
a)	Infection of the cornea
b)	Pressure on the optic nerve
c)	Opacity of the lens
d)	Obstruction of the venous return from the retina
Question 54 Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:
b)	Anterior pituitary
c)	Frontal lobe
d)	Basal ganglia
Question 55 Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?
a)	GCT Pattern theory
b)	Specificity theory
c)	Neuromatrix theory
Question 56 Where is oxytocin synthesized?
b)	Paraventricular nuclei
c)	Anterior pituitary
d)	Posterior pituitary
Question 57 An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
Question 58 What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis?
Question 59 The most critical aspect in ly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is:
a)	Computed tomographic (CT) scan
b)	Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
c)	Skull x-ray studies
d)	Health history
Question 60 Transcription is best defined as a process by which:
a)	DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on ribonucleic acid (RNA).
b)	RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis.
c)	RNA is synthesized from a DNA template.
d)	A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence.
Question 61 Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
a)	An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday
b)	A depressed Hispanic woman
c)	An individual on the second day after hip replacement
d)	A man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Question 62 Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?
Question 63 Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance?
d)	Small volume
Question 64 An amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women who:
a)	Have a history of chronic illness
b)	Have a family history of genetic disorders
c)	Have experienced in vitro fertilization
d)	Had a late menarche
Question 65 Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers?
a)	Slow contraction speed
b)	Fast conduction velocities
c)	Profuse capillary supply
d)	Oxidative metabolism
Question 66 The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
Question 67 Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)?
a)	Optic (CN I)
b)	Abducens (CN VI)
c)	Oculomotor (CN III)
d)	Trochlear (CN IV)
Question 68 Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?
d)	Growth hormone
Question 69 What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children?
a)	Periorbital edema
b)	Scrotal or labial edema
c)	Frothy urine
Question 70 The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
Question 71 The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept?
Question 72 When a woman’s uterus is assessed as protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen, which grade of prolapse does this indicate?
Question 73 What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?
Question 74 Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
a)	Premenstrual syndrome
b)	Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
c)	Polycystic ovary syndrome
d)	Primary dysmenorrhea
Question 75 What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?
Question 76. : The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
d)	T cells
Question 77 : What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)?
a)	Cyanocobalamin by oral intake
b)	Vitamin B12 by injection
c)	Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection
d)	Folate by oral intake
Question 78. : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
b)	Herpes simplex virus
Question 79. : During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender?
a)	B lymphocytes proliferate.
b)	The nodes are inflamed.
c)	The nodes fill with purulent exudate.
d)	The nodes are not properly functioning.
Question 80. : What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child?
a)	104/55 mm Hg
b)	106/58 mm Hg
c)	112/62 mm Hg
d)	121/70 mm Hg
Question 81. : Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of:
a)	Epinephrine and aldosterone
b)	Norepinephrine and cortisol
c)	Epinephrine and norepinephrine
d)	Acetylcholine and cortisol
Question 82. : What is the function of erythrocytes?
a)	Tissue oxygenation
c)	Infection control
d)	Allergy response
Question 83. Where are Kupffer cells located?
Question 84. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
a)	Hemolytic anemia
b)	Pernicious anemia
c)	Systemic lupus erythematosus
d)	Myasthenia gravis
Question 85. Where are Langerhans cells found?
b)	Intestinal lining
Question 86. What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera?
a)	Decreased erythrocyte count
b)	Destruction of erythrocytes
c)	Increased blood viscosity
d)	Neurologic involvement
Question 87. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?
a)	Reticulocyte count
b)	Serum transferring
d)	Serum vitamin B12
Question 88. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
b)	Cancer cells
Question 89. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
Question 90. Which renal change is found in older adults?
a)	Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
b)	Sharp decline in renal blood flow
c)	Decrease in the number of nephrons
d)	Decrease in urine output
Question 91. What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
d)	Sinoatrial (SA)
Question 92. What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children?
a)	Chronic respiratory infections
b)	Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
c)	Obligatory mouth breathing
d)	Paradoxic breathing
Question 93. Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to which anatomical area?
a)	Vulva or penis
d)	Lower abdomen
Question 94. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
a)	Greater quantities of histamine
b)	More histamine receptors
c)	Greater quantities of IgE
d)	A deficiency in epinephrine
Question 95. Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood?
a)	Superior vena cava
c)	Inferior vena cava
d)	Pulmonary veins
Question 96. How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?
a)	An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.
b)	An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.
c)	An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.
d)	An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s.
Question 97. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel?
a)	Superior vena cava
b)	Pulmonary veins
c)	Pulmonary artery
d)	Coronary veins
Question 98. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
a)	Passive-acquired immunity
b)	Active-acquired immunity
c)	Passive-innate immunity
d)	Active-innate immunity
Question 99. The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?
a)	Posterior pituitary
d)	Anterior pituitary
Question 100. Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful?
a)	Flight or fight
Question 101. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs?
a)	T-cell immunity
c)	Fetal immunity
Question 102. What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?
a)	Small channels called canaliculi
b)	Osteocytes within the lacunae
c)	Tiny spaces within the lacunae
d)	Haversian system
Question 103. Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive?
Question 104. Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor?
b)	Gamma-aminobutyric acid
Question 105. Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
a)	Sodium intake
b)	Physical inactivity
c)	Psychosocial stress
Question 106. When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone?
Question 107. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of:
a)	Positive feedback
b)	Negative feedback
c)	Neural regulation
d)	Physiologic regulation
Question 108. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder?
a)	Esophageal atresia
b)	Congenital aganglionic megacolon
c)	Pyloric stenosis
Question 109. Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
a)	Dementia syndrome
c)	Alzheimer disease
d)	Parkinson disease
Question 110. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
b)	Anterior pituitary
c)	Mammary glands
d)	Posterior pituitary
Question 111. A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry?
a)	Down syndrome
b)	Klinefelter syndrome
c)	Turner syndrome
d)	Cri du chat
Question 112. : Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?
a)	Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b)	Thyroxine (T4)
c)	Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
d)	Triiodothyronine (T3)
Question 113. : The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone?
d)	Antidiuretic hormone
Question 114. : The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain?
c)	Frontal lobe
Question 115. : What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation?
a)	Down syndrome
b)	Fragile X syndrome
c)	Klinefelter syndrome
d)	Turner syndrome
Question 116. : A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?
d)	Fragile X
Question 117. : What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
a)	Increases serum calcium.
b)	Decreases serum calcium.
c)	Decreases serum magnesium.
d)	Increases serum magnesium.
Question 118. : What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?
b)	Joint capsule
d)	Elastin fibers
Question 119. Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of:
a)	Decreased production of aqueous humor
b)	Increased production of vitreous humor
c)	Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor
d)	Excessive destruction of vitreous humor
Question 120 Loud snoring, a decrease in oxygen saturation, fragmented sleep, chronic daytime sleepiness, and fatigue are clinical manifestations of which sleep disorder?
a)	Obstructive sleep apnea
b)	Upper airway resistance syndrome
Questions 121 What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
a)	Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b)	Kaposi sarcoma