HESI PHARMACOLOGY EVOLVE EXAM TEST BANK | 400+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | LATESTJUST RELEASED EXAM GUARANTEED PASS [MUST HAVE DOC]

HESI PHARMACOLOGY EVOLVE EXAM TEST BANK 2024 | 400+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | LATEST EXAM GUARANTEED PASS [MUST HAVE DOC] A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is intubated and placed on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider administers pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible for a potential complication with this drug? A. Dantrolene sodium B. Neostigmine bromide C. Succinylcholine bromide D. Epinephrine - Correct Answer-B. Neostigmine bromide Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the drug compared with the use of anticholinergics. A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the health care provider to report that the client has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should the nurse anticipate? A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen. B. Change the elixir to an injectable route. C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C. D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic. - Correct Answer-C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C. When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority? A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention. B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often. C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension. 2 | P a g e D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease gastrointestinal irritation. - Correct Answer-B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often. A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication should the nurse explain as a sedative used during the procedure? A.Inhaled nitrous oxide B.Midazolam IV C.Ketamine IM D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM - Correct Answer-B. Midazolam IV A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine to treat ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client prior to discharge? A. Maintain good oral hygiene. B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal. C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually. D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day. - Correct Answer-D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day. The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child whose tonic-clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse informs the mother that the child must have blood tests every week. The mother asks why so many blood tests are necessary. Which complication is assessed through frequent laboratory testing that the nurse should explain to this mother? A. Nephrotoxicity B. Ototoxicity C. Myelosuppression D.Hepatotoxicity - Correct Answer-C. Myelosuppression Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine therapy. The client requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this complication does not have as great a potential for occurrence as option C. Options A and B are not typical complications of carbamazepine therapy. When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The administration of which type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add this intervention? A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin sulfate C. Chlorambucil 3 | P a g e D. Cyclophosphamide - Correct Answer-D. Cyclophosphamide Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis. A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea corporis infection. Which response by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the drug teaching conducted by the nurse? A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn." B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had." C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days." D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug." - Correct Answer-A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn." Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should be cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure. Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side effects of this medication. A client who has been taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for symptoms of urethritis and cystitis comes to the clinic because her urine is reddish-orange. Which question should the practical nurse ask to determine if the medication has been effective? A) How much water have you been drinking each day? B) Does the urine color stain your toilet bowl or undergarments? C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency? D) Did your urine appear cloudy or have a foul odor on voiding? - Correct Answer-C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency? Feedback: Phenazopyridine, an over-the-counter urinary analgesic, acts on the mucosa of the urinary tract to relieve urinary pain, burning, itching, or urgency (C) associated with urethritis and cystitis. Although determining if the client is forcing fluids (A), experiencing staining from Pyridium's side effect (B), or having signs of a urinary infection (D) are worthwhile assessments, the therapeutic response of Pyridium is related to urinary discomforts only. A male client who has been receiving an antineoplastic drug has developed thrombocytopenia. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce? A) Use suppository form of drugs. B) Avoid large public gatherings. C) Rise slowly when standing up. D) Shave with an electric razor. - Correct Answer-D) Shave with an electric razor. Feedback: Thrombocytopenia is a common side effect of bone marrow depression caused by several antineoplastic agents. The client is experiencing a low platelet count and should use an electric razor (D) to reduce his risk of bleeding. (A, B, and C) are not indicated for a client who needs to implement thrombocytopenia precautions. 4 | P a g e The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who has been taking prednisone (Deltasone) daily for a year. Which adverse effect should the PN document in the client's record? A) Photosensitvity. B) Weight gain. C) Loss of hair. D) Pale skin color. - Correct Answer-B) Weight gain. Feedback: Long term use of prednisone causes fluid retention and redistribution of fat deposition. Weight gain (B) and moon face reflect adverse effects of long-term prednisone use and should be documented. (A, C, and D) do not occur with treatment using prednisone. A female client with recurring headaches tells the practical nurse (PN) that she has been taking at least 4 grams of acetaminophen a day. Which laboratory studies should the PN review for this client? A) Creatinine clearance. B) Hepatic enzymes. C) Coagulation values. D) Arterial blood gases. - Correct Answer-B) Hepatic enzymes. Feedback: Liver toxicity can occur when doses of acetaminophen exceed 4 grams a day, resulting in an elevation in hepatic enzyme values (B). (A, C, and D) do not reveal findings related to acetaminophen toxicity. A client receives a prescription for an oral opioid analgesic for post-operative pain. Which adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) monitor for with the client? A) Constipation. B) Photosensitivity. C) Decreased heart rate. D) Frequent urination. - Correct Answer-A) Constipation. Feedback: Opioid analgesics slow peristalsis, which leads to constipation (A), a common side effect of opiates. (B, C, and D) are not associated with opioid analgesics. A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in the emergency department? A. Phenytoin B. Diazepam C. Phenobarbital D. Carbamazepine - Correct Answer-B. Diazepa