WGU D115 OA ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE
EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE |
LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
answers Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the
affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
answers Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are
the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - answers Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of
genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of
genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the
second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the
embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
missing gene? - answers Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is
caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low
birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - answers The disease
can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of
the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female)
to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - answers Relative risk
is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - answers
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and
evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
,WGU D115 OA ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE
EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE |
LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - answers The imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - answers The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - answers
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - answers Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - answers Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - answers Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability
to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - answers The complement pathway is activated in response
to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - answers An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - answers Infection with a
fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which
include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - answers Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - answers Exotoxins are released during
bacterial growth.
,WGU D115 OA ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE
EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE |
LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - answers The results of decreased fat consumption have
been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon
cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - answers Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung
and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - answers UV light
causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together,
becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - answers
Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - answers TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through
university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - answers True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - answers Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - answers
Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
, WGU D115 OA ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE
EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE |
LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
What do these genes influence? - answers Regulation of appetite-Research has
shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in
600 black Americans an example of? - answers Prevalence tells us how often
disease is seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given
time, at any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - answers
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15.
Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-
Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - answers Prevent infection
of the injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils - answers Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute
inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory
response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to
the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? - answers Active-acquired
immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed
to a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a
vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies? - answers The greater quantities of IgE in atopic
individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the
immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the
response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to
fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE
EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE |
LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
answers Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the
affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
answers Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are
the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - answers Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of
genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of
genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the
second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the
embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
missing gene? - answers Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is
caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low
birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - answers The disease
can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of
the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female)
to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - answers Relative risk
is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - answers
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and
evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
,WGU D115 OA ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE
EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE |
LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - answers The imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - answers The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - answers
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - answers Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - answers Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - answers Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability
to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - answers The complement pathway is activated in response
to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - answers An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - answers Infection with a
fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which
include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - answers Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is
suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - answers Exotoxins are released during
bacterial growth.
,WGU D115 OA ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE
EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE |
LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - answers The results of decreased fat consumption have
been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon
cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - answers Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung
and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - answers UV light
causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together,
becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - answers
Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - answers TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through
university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - answers True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - answers Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - answers
Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
, WGU D115 OA ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 | ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE
EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE |
LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
What do these genes influence? - answers Regulation of appetite-Research has
shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in
600 black Americans an example of? - answers Prevalence tells us how often
disease is seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given
time, at any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - answers
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15.
Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-
Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - answers Prevent infection
of the injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils - answers Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute
inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory
response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to
the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? - answers Active-acquired
immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed
to a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a
vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies? - answers The greater quantities of IgE in atopic
individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the
immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the
response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to
fight the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
