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HESI Critical Care Exam Practice questions

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A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client? A. The nurse who is caring for another client receiving intracavitary radiation. B. A nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal. C. A nurse with oncology experience who may be pregnant. D. The nurse who is caring for another client who has Clostridium difficile. - ANSWERSB. A nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal. RATIONALE: A client receiving intracavity radiation poses a radiation hazard as long as the intracavity radiation source is in place. A nurse's ability to care of this client is not affected by Marfan's syndrome (B), which is a hereditary disorder of connective tissues, bones, muscles, ligaments and skeletal structures. The goal is to limit any one staff member's exposure to the calculated time span based on the half-life of radium, such as the number of minutes at the bedside per day, so (A) should not be assigned. (C) should not be exposed to the radiation due to the possible effect on the fetus. A radiation exposure decreases the immune response in the client who should not be exposed to the potential inadvertent transmission of an infectious organism (D). 1.A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Fit the client with a respirator mask. B. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room. C. Don a clean gown for client care. D. Place an isolation cart in the hallway - ANSWERSAssign the client to a negative air-flow room RATIONALE: Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, so the client should be assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room (D). Although (A and C) should be implemented for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air flow from the room is minimized when the client has TB. (B) should be implemented when the client leaves the isolation environment. 2.A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse implement next? A. Measure the blood pressure. B. Reassess the apical pulse. C. Notify the healthcare provider. D. Administer the medication. - ANSWERSAdminister the medication RATIONALE: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors of the sinoatrial node to reduce the heart rate, so the medication should be administered (C) because the client's apical pulse is greater than 60. (A, B, and D) are not indicated at this time. 3.The nurse is assessing a client and identifies a bruit over the thyroid. This finding is consistent with which interpretation? A. Hypothyroidism. B. Thyroid cyst. C. Thyroid cancer. D. Hyperthyroidism - ANSWERSHyperthyroidism Rationale:Hyperthyroidism (D) is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, often referred to as a goiter, and a bruit may be auscultated over the goiter due to an increase in glandular vascularity which increases as the thyroid gland becomes hyperactive. A bruit is not common with (A, B, and C). A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture? A. Hematemesis and abdominal distention. B. Asymmetry of the face and eye movements. C. Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign. D. Abnormal position and movement of the arm. - ANSWERSRhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign. RATIONALE: Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear over the mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse should assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF leakage from the ears or nose (D). (A) is consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or arm fractures. (C) occurs with blunt abdominal injuries. The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder? A. Grave's disease. B. Multiple sclerosis. C. Addison's disease. D. Cushing syndrome. - ANSWERSGrave's disease RATIONALE: This client is exhibiting symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism or Grave's disease (A), which is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. (B, C, and D) are not associated with these symptoms. The nurse is assessing an older client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding? A. A nystagmus on the left. B. Exophthalmos on the right. C. Ptosis on the left eyelid. D. Astigmatism on the right. - ANSWERSPtosis on the left eyelid Rationale: Ptosis is the term to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris (A), which may result from oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscle disorder. (B) is characterized by rapid, rhythmic movement of both eyes. (C) is a distortion of the lens of the eye, causing decreased visual acuity. (D) is a term used to describe a protrusion of the eyeballs that occurs with hyperthyroidism. The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to starting school. The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the child's weight is in the 95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take? A. Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day. B. Encourage giving two additional snacks each day to the child. C. Recommend a daily intake of at least four glasses of whole milk. D. Assess for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance - ANSWERSA. Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day. RATIONALE: The child is overweight for height, so assessment of the child's daily diet (C) should be determined. The child does not need (A or B), both of which will increase the child's weight. Poor nutrition (D) is commonly seen in underweight children, not overweight. A child is receiving maintenance intravenous (IV) fluids at the rate of 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight, plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. How many milliliters per hour should the nurse program the infusion pump for a child who weighs 19.5 kg? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.) A. 24 B. 61 C. 73 D. 58 - ANSWERSB. 61 RATIONALE: The formula for calculating daily fluid requirements is: 0 to 10 kg, 100 mL/kg per day; or 10 to 20 kg, 1000 mL for the first 10 kg of body weight plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. To determine an hourly rate, divide the total milliliters per day by 24. 19.5 kg x 50 mL/kg = 475 mL + 1000 mL = 1475 mL / 24 hours = 61 mL/hour The nurse obtains the pulse rate of 89 beats/minute for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). Which action should the nurse take? A. Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. B. Give the medication dosage as scheduled. C. Assess respiratory rate for one minute next. D. Wait 30 minutes and give half of the dosage of medication. - ANSWERSA. Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider RATIONALE: Bradycardia is an early sign of digoxin toxicity, so if the infant's pulse rate is less than 100 beats/minute, digoxin should be withheld and the healthcare provider should be notified (D). Assessing the respiratory rate (A) is not indicated before administering Lanoxin. (B and C) place the infant at further risk for digoxin toxicity. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the nurse include? A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt 23 hours per day. B. Dress with the brace over regular clothing. C. Shower with the brace directly against the skin. D. Remove the brace just before going to bed. - ANSWERSA. Wear the brace over a T-shirt 23 hours per day. RATIONALE: Idiopathic scoliosis is an abn

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HESI Critical Care Exam Practice
questions

A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which

nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

A. The nurse who is caring for another client receiving intracavitary radiation.

B. A nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.

C. A nurse with oncology experience who may be pregnant.

D. The nurse who is caring for another client who has Clostridium difficile. - ANSWERSB. A nurse with
Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.

RATIONALE:

A client receiving intracavity radiation poses a radiation hazard as long as the intracavity

radiation source is in place. A nurse's ability to care of this client is not affected by Marfan's

syndrome (B), which is a hereditary disorder of connective tissues, bones, muscles, ligaments

and skeletal structures. The goal is to limit any one staff member's exposure to the calculated

time span based on the half-life of radium, such as the number of minutes at the bedside per day,

so (A) should not be assigned. (C) should not be exposed to the radiation due to the possible

effect on the fetus. A radiation exposure decreases the immune response in the client who should

not be exposed to the potential inadvertent transmission of an infectious organism (D).



1.A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most

important for the nurse to implement?

A. Fit the client with a respirator mask.

B. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.

C. Don a clean gown for client care.

D. Place an isolation cart in the hallway - ANSWERSAssign the client to a negative air-flow room

RATIONALE:

,Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, so the client should be

assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room (D). Although (A and C) should be implemented

for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air flow from the room

is minimized when the client has TB. (B) should be implemented when the client leaves the

isolation environment.



2.A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse

determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse

implement

next?

A. Measure the blood pressure.

B. Reassess the apical pulse.

C. Notify the healthcare provider.

D. Administer the medication. - ANSWERSAdminister the medication

RATIONALE:

Atenolol, a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors of the sinoatrial node to reduce the heart rate,

so the medication should be administered (C) because the client's apical pulse is greater than 60.

(A, B, and D) are not indicated at this time.



3.The nurse is assessing a client and identifies a bruit over the thyroid. This finding is consistent

with which interpretation?

A. Hypothyroidism.

B. Thyroid cyst.

C. Thyroid cancer.

D. Hyperthyroidism - ANSWERSHyperthyroidism

Rationale:Hyperthyroidism (D) is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, often referred to as a goiter, and a

bruit may be auscultated over the goiter due to an increase in glandular vascularity which

increases as the thyroid gland becomes hyperactive. A bruit is not common with (A, B, and C).

,A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis
and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the
child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What

assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture?

A. Hematemesis and abdominal distention.

B. Asymmetry of the face and eye movements.

C. Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign.

D. Abnormal position and movement of the arm. - ANSWERSRhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign.

RATIONALE:

Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear over the

mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse should assess for possible

meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF leakage from the ears or nose (D). (A) is

consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or arm

fractures. (C) occurs with blunt abdominal injuries.



The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty

sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid

retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder?

A. Grave's disease.

B. Multiple sclerosis.

C. Addison's disease.

D. Cushing syndrome. - ANSWERSGrave's disease

RATIONALE:

This client is exhibiting symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism or Grave's disease (A),

which is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. (B, C, and D) are not associated with

these symptoms.



The nurse is assessing an older client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops,

covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to

, document this finding?

A. A nystagmus on the left.

B. Exophthalmos on the right.

C. Ptosis on the left eyelid.

D. Astigmatism on the right. - ANSWERSPtosis on the left eyelid

Rationale: Ptosis is the term to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris (A), which

may result from oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscle disorder. (B) is characterized by rapid,

rhythmic movement of both eyes. (C) is a distortion of the lens of the eye, causing decreased

visual acuity. (D) is a term used to describe a protrusion of the eyeballs that occurs with

hyperthyroidism.



The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to starting school.

The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the child's weight is in the

95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take?

A. Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day.

B. Encourage giving two additional snacks each day to the child.

C. Recommend a daily intake of at least four glasses of whole milk.

D. Assess for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance - ANSWERSA. Question the type and
quantity of foods eaten in a typical day.

RATIONALE:

The child is overweight for height, so assessment of the child's daily diet (C) should be

determined. The child does not need (A or B), both of which will increase the child's weight.

Poor nutrition (D) is commonly seen in underweight children, not overweight.



A child is receiving maintenance intravenous (IV) fluids at the rate of 1000 mL for the first 10

kg of body weight, plus 50 mL/kg per day for each kilogram between 10 and 20. How many

milliliters per hour should the nurse program the infusion pump for a child who weighs 19.5 kg?

(Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

A. 24
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