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NSG 6020 (Health Assessment) Final Exam Stuvia (Latest Version) - Already Graded A SOUTH UNIVERSITY (NSG 6020 Health Assessment)

NSG 6020 (Health Assessment) Final Exam Stuvia (Latest Version) - Already Graded A SOUTH UNIVERSITY (NSG 6020 Health Assessment) .A 72-year-old retired saleswoman comes to your office, complaining of a bloody discharge from her left breast for 3 months. She denies any trauma to her breast. Her past medical history includes high blood pressure and abdominal surgery for colon cancer. Her aunt died of ovarian cancer and her father died of colon cancer. Her mother died of a stroke. The patient denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. She is a widow and has three healthy children. On examination her breasts are symmetric, with no skin changes. You are able to express bloody discharge from her left nipple. You feel no discrete masses, but her left axilla has a hard, 1-cm fixed node. The remainder of her heart, lung, abdominal, and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. What cause of nipple discharge is the most likely in her circumstance?A)Benign breast abnormalityB)Breast cancerC)GalactorrheaAns:BFeedback:Nipple discharge in breast cancer is usually unilateral and can be clear or bloody. Although a breast mass is not palpated, in this case a fixed lymph node is palpated. Other forms of breast cancer can present as a chronic rash on the breast.2.A 44-year-old female comes to your clinic, complaining of severe dry skin in the area over her right nipple. She denies any trauma to the area. She noticed the skin change during a self-examination 2 months ago. She also admits that she had felt a lump under the nipple but kept putting off making an appointment. She does admit to 6 months of fatigue but no weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. Her past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism. She does not have a history of eczema or allergies. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. On examination you find a middle-aged woman appearing her stated age. Inspection of her right breast reveals a scaly eczema-like crust around her nipple. Underneath you palpate a nontender 2-cm mass. The axilla contains only soft, moveable nodes. The left breast and axilla examination findings are unremarkable.What visible skin change of the breast does she have?A)Nipple retractionB)Paget's diseaseC)Peau d'orange signAns:BFeedback:This uncommon form of breast cancer starts as an eczema-like, scaly skin change around the areola. The lesion may weep, crust, or erode. It can be associated with an underlying mass, but the skin change can also be found alone. Any eczema-like area around the nipple that does not respond to topical treatment needs to be evaluated for breast cancer.3.A 56-year-old female comes to your clinic, complaining of her left breast looking unusual. She says that for 2 months the angle of the nipple has changed direction. She does not do self-examinations, so she doesn't know if she has a lump. She has no history of weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure. She smokes two packs of cigarettes a day and has three to four drinks per weekend night. Her paternal aunt died of breast cancer in her forties. Her mother is healthy but her father died of prostate cancer. On examination you find a middle-aged woman appearing older than her stated age. Inspection of her left breast reveals a flattened nipple deviating toward the lateral side. On palpation the nipple feels thickened. Lateral to the areola you palpate a nontender 4-cm mass. The axilla contains several fixed nodes. The right breast and axilla examinations are unremarkable.What visible skin change of the breast does she have?A)Nipple retractionB)Paget's diseaseC)Peau d'orange signAns:AFeedback:A retracted nipple is flattened or pulled inward or toward the medial, lateral, anterior, or posterior side of the breast. The surrounding skin can be thickened. This is a relatively late finding in breast cancer.4.A 19-year-old female comes to your office, complaining of a clear discharge from her right breast for 2 months. She states that she noticed it when she and her boyfriend were “messing around” and he squeezed her nipple. She continues to have this discharge anytime she squeezes that nipple. She denies any trauma to her breasts. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies any pregnancies. Both of her parents are healthy. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks three to four beers a week. On examination her breasts are symmetric with no skin changes. You are able to express clear discharge from her right nipple. You feel no discrete masses and her axillae are normal. The remainder of her heart, lung, abdominal, and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. A urine pregnancy test is negative.What cause of nipple discharge is the most likely in her circumstance?A)Benign breast abnormalityB)Breast cancerC)Nonpuerperal galactorrheaAns:AFeedback:Nipple discharge in benign breast abnormalities tends to be clear and unilateral. The discharge is usually not spontaneous. This patient needs to be told to stop compressing her nipple. If the problem still persists after the patient has stopped compressing the nipple, further workup is warranted.5.A 23-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for an annual examination. She has recently become sexually active and wants to be placed on birth control. Her only complaint is that the skin in her armpits has become darker. She states it looks like dirt, and she scrubs her skin nightly with soap and water but the color stays. Her past medical symptoms consist of acne and mild obesity. Her periods have been irregular for 3 years. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has high blood pressure. The patient denies using tobacco but has four to five drinks on Friday and Saturday nights. She denies any illegal drug use. On examination you see a mildly obese female who is breathing comfortably. Her vital signs are unremarkable. Looking under her axilla, you see dark, velvet-like skin. Her annual examination is otherwise unremarkable.What disorder of the breast or axilla is she most likely to have?A)Peau d'orangeB)Acanthosis nigricansC)Hidradenitis suppurativaAns:BFeedback:Acanthosis nigricans can be associated with an internal malignancy, but in most cases it is a benign dermatologic condition associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, consisting of acne, hirsutism, obesity, irregular periods, infertility, ovarian cysts, and early onset type 2 diabetes. It is also known to correlate with insulin resistance.6.A 43-year-old store clerk comes to your office upset because she has found an enlarged lymph node under her left arm. She states she found it yesterday when she was feeling pain under her arm during movement. She states the lymph node is about an inch long and is very painful. She checks her breasts monthly and gets a yearly mammogram (her last was 2 months ago), and until now everything has been normal. She states she is so upset because her mother died in her 50s of breast cancer. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs. Her father is in good health. On examination you see a tense female appearing her stated age. On visual inspection of her left axilla you see a tense red area. There is no scarring around the axilla. Palpating this area, you feel a 2-cm tender, movable lymph node underlying hot skin. Other shotty nodes are also in the area. Visualization of both breasts is normal. Palpation of her right axilla and both breasts is unremarkable. Examining her left arm, you see a scabbed-over superficial laceration over her left hand. Upon your questioning, she remembers she cut her hand gardening last week.What disorder of the axilla is most likely responsible for her symptoms?A)Breast cancerB)Lymphadenopathy of infectious originC)Hidradenitis suppurativaAns:BFeedback:A lymph node enlarged because of infection is generally hot, tender, and red. Close examination of the skin that drains to that lymph node region is advised. Often there will be a cut or scratch over the involved arm that has an infectious agent. An example is cat scratch disease.7.A 63-year-old nurse comes to your office, upset because she has found an enlarged lymph node under her right arm. She states she found it last week while taking a shower. She isn't sure if she has any breast lumps because she doesn't know how to do self-exams. She states her last mammogram was 5 years ago and it was normal. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She quit smoking 2 years ago after a 55-packs/year history. She denies using any illegal drugs and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother died of a heart attack and her father died of a stroke. She has no children. On examination you see an older female appearing her stated age. On visual inspection of her right axilla you see nothing unusual. Palpating this area, you feel a 2-cm hard, fixed lymph node. She denies any tenderness. Visualization of both breasts is normal. Palpation of her left axilla and breast is unremarkable. On palpation of her right breast you feel a nontender 1-cm lump in the tail of Spence.What disorder of the axilla is most likely responsible for her symptoms?A)Breast cancerB)Lymphadenopathy of infectious originC)Hidradenitis suppurativaAns:AFeedback:Metastatic lymph nodes tend to be hard, nontender, and fixed, often to the rib cage. Although the patient has no family history of breast cancer, she is at a slightly increased risk due to her never having had children.8.A 40-year-old mother of two presents to your office for consultation. She is interested in knowing what her relative risks are for developing breast cancer. She is concerned because her sister had unilateral breast cancer 6 years ago at age 38. The patient reports on her history that she began having periods at age 11 and has been fairly regular ever since, except during her two pregnancies. Her first child arrived when she was 26 and her second at age 28. Otherwise she has had no health problems. Her father has high blood pressure. Her mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s. The patient denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. She is a family law attorney and is married. Her examination is essentially unremarkable.Which risk factor of her personal and family history most puts her in danger of getting breast cancer?A)First-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancerB)Age at menarche of less than 12C)First live birth between the ages of 25 and 29D)First-degree relative with postmenopausal breast cancerAns:AFeedback:Having a first-degree relative with cancer before menopause gives a relative risk of 3.1.9.A 51-year-old cook comes to your office for consultation. She recently found out that her 44-year-old sister with premenopausal breast cancer is positive for the BRCA1 gene. Your patient has been doing research on the Internet and saw that her chance of having also inherited the BRCA1 gene is 50%. She is interested in knowing what her risk of developing breast cancer would be if she were positive for the gene. She denies any lumps in her breasts and has had normal mammograms. She has had no weight loss, fever, or night sweats. Her mother is healthy and her father has prostate cancer. Two of her paternal aunts died of breast cancer. She is married. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and rarely drinks alcohol. Her breast and axilla examinations are unremarkable.At her age, what is her risk of getting breast cancer if she has the BRCA1 gene?A)10%B)50%C)80%Ans:BFeedback:At the age of 50, the risk of breast cancer for someone with the BRCA1 gene is 50%.10.A 14-year-old junior high school student is brought in by his mother and father because he seems to be developing breasts. The mother is upset because she read on the Internet that smoking marijuana leads to breast enlargement in males. The young man adamantly denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. He has recently noticed changes in his penis, testicles, and pubic hair pattern. Otherwise, his past medical history is unremarkable. His parents are both in good health. He has two older brothers who never had this problem. On examination you see a mildly overweight teenager with enlarged breast tissue that is slightly tender on both sides. Otherwise his examination is normal. He is agreeable to taking a drug test.What is the most likely cause of his gynecomastia?A)Breast cancerB)Imbalance of hormones of pubertyC)Drug useAns:BFeedback:Approximately one third of teenage boys develop gynecomastia during puberty. It is not surprising that the two older brothers did not have this.11.A patient is concerned about a dark skin lesion on her anterolateral abdomen. It has not changed, and there is no discharge or bleeding. On examination there is a medium brown circular lesion on the anterolateral wall of the abdomen. It is soft, has regular borders, is evenly pigmented, and is about 7 mm in diameter. What is this lesion?A)MelanomaB)Dysplastic nevusC)Supernumerary nippleD)DermatofibromaAns:CFeedback:This represents a supernumerary nipple. These occur along the “milk line” and do not exhibit features of more concerning lesions.12.A 30-year-old man notices a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola. He has no other symptoms and no diagnosis of breast cancer in his first-degree relatives. What is the most likely diagnosis?A)Breast tissueB)Fibrocystic diseaseC)Breast cancerD)Lymph nodeAns:AFeedback:Approximately one third of adult men will have palpable breast tissue under the areola. While males can have breast cancer, this is much less common. There are no lymph nodes in this area.13.Which of the following lymph node groups is most commonly involved in breast cancer?A)LateralB)SubscapularC)PectoralD)CentralAns:DFeedback:The central nodes at the apex of the axilla are most commonly involved in breast cancer. The axilla can be viewed roughly as a four-sided pyramid. An examination covering all sides and the apex is unlikely to miss a significant node.14.When should a woman conduct breast self-examination with respect to her menses?A)Five to seven days following her mensesB)MidcycleC)Immediately prior to mensesD)During her mensesAns:AFeedback:The breast examination should be conducted during the time with the least estrogen stimulation of the breast tissue. This corresponds to five to seven days following menses.15.Mrs. Patton, a 48-year-old woman, comes to your office with a complaint of a breast mass. Without any other information, what is the risk of this mass being cancerous?A)About 10%B)About 20%C)About 30%D)About 40%Ans:AFeedback:Eleven percent of women presenting with a breast mass will have breast cancer. This statistic can be reassuring to a patient, but the importance of further studies must be emphasized.16.How often, according to American Cancer Society recommendations, should a woman undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician?A)Every yearB)Every 2 yearsC)Every 3 yearsD)Every 4 yearsAns:CFeedback:The current recommendation for screening by breast examination is every 3 years.17.Which of the following is most likely benign on breast examination?A)Dimpling of the skin resembling that of an orangeB)One breast larger than the otherC)One nipple invertedD)One breast with dimple when the patient leans forwardAns:BFeedback:Asymmetry in size of the breasts is a common benign finding. The others are concerning for underlying malignancy.18.Which is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer?A)Beginning at the nipple, make an ever-enlarging spiral.B)Divide the breast into quadrants and inspect each systematically.C)Examine in lines resembling the back and forth pattern of mowing a lawn.D)Beginning at the nipple, palpate outward in a stripe pattern.Ans:CFeedback:The vertical strip pattern has been shown to be the most effective pattern for palpation of the breast. The most important aspect, however, is to be systematic. The tail of Spence, located on the upper anterior chest, is an area commonly missed on examination.19.Which is true of women who have had a unilateral mastectomy?A)They no longer require breast examination.B)They should be examined carefully along the surgical scar for masses.C)Lymphedema of the ipsilateral arm usually suggests recurrence of breast cancer.D)Women with breast reconstruction over their mastectomy site no longer require examination.Ans:BFeedback:A woman who has had breast cancer remains at high risk for recurrence, especially in the contralateral breast. The mastectomy site should be carefully examined for local recurrence as well. Lymphedema or swelling of the ipsilateral arm following mastectomy is common and does not usually indicate recurrence. Women with breast reconstruction must also undergo careful examination.20.Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?A)It has been shown to reduce mortality from breast cancer.B)It is recommended unanimously by organizations making screening recommendations.C)A high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination.D)The undue fear caused by finding a mass justifies omitting instruction in breast self-examination.Ans:CFeedback:Although self-examination has not been shown to reduce mortality and is not recommended by all groups making screening recommendations, many choose to teach women a systematic method in which to examine their breasts. A high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination.1.A 52-year-old secretary comes to your office, complaining about accidentally leaking urine when she coughs or sneezes. She says this has been going on for about a year now. She relates that she has not had a period for 2 years. She denies any recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history is significant for four spontaneous vaginal deliveries. She is married and has four children. She denies alcohol, tobacco, or drug use. During her pelvic examination you note some atrophic vaginal tissue, but the remainder of her pelvic, abdominal, and rectal examinations are unremarkable. Which type of urinary incontinence does she have?A)Stress incontinenceB)Urge incontinenceC)Overflow incontinenceAns:AFeedback:Stress incontinence usually occurs when the intra-abdominal pressure goes up during coughing, sneezing, or laughing. This is usually due to a weakness of the pelvic floor, with inadequate muscle support of the bladder. Vaginal deliveries and pelvic surgery are often associated with these symptoms. Usually female patients are postmenopausal when stress incontinence begins. Kegel exercises are usually recommended to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles.2.A 46-year-old former salesman presents to the ER, complaining of black stools for the past few weeks. His past medical history is significant for cirrhosis. He has gained weight recently, especially around his abdomen. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years and has drunk approximately 10 alcoholic beverages a day for 25 years. He has used IV heroin and smoked crack in the past. He denies any recent use. He is currently unemployed and has never been married. On examination you find a man appearing older than his stated age. His skin has a yellowish tint and he is thin, with a prominent abdomen. You note multiple “spider angiomas” at the base of his neck. Otherwise, his heart and lung examinations are normal. On inspection he has dilated veins around his umbilicus. Increased bowel sounds are heard during auscultation. Palpation reveals diffuse tenderness that is more severe in the epigastric area. His liver is small and hard to palpation and he has a positive fluid wave. He is positive for occult blood on his rectal examination.What cause of black stools most likely describes his symptoms and signs?A)Infectious diarrheaB)Mallory-Weiss tearC)Esophageal varicesAns:CFeedback:Varices are often found in alcoholic patients, but only when they have a diagnosis of significant cirrhosis. This patient has symptoms of cirrhosis, including jaundice, ascites, spider hemangiomas, and dilated veins on his abdomen (caput medusa).3.A 21-year-old receptionist comes to your clinic, complaining of frequent diarrhea. She states that the stools are very loose and there is some cramping beforehand. She states this has occurred on and off since she was in high school. She denies any nausea, vomiting, or blood in her stool. Occasionally she has periods of constipation, but that is rare. She thinks the diarrhea is much worse when she is nervous. Her past medical history is not significant. She is single and a junior in college majoring in accounting. She smokes when she drinks alcohol but denies using any illegal drugs. Both of her parents are healthy. Her entire physical examination is unremarkable. What is most likely the etiology of her diarrhea?A)Secretory infectionsB)Inflammatory infectionsC)Irritable bowel syndromeD)Malabsorption syndromeAns:CFeedback:Irritable bowel syndrome will cause loose bowel movements with cramps but no systemic symptoms of fever, weight loss, or malaise. This syndrome is more likely in young women with alternating symptoms of loose stools and constipation. Stress usually makes the symptoms worse, as do certain foods.4.A 42-year-old florist comes to your office, complaining of chronic constipation for the last 6 months. She has had no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea and no abdominal pain or cramping. She denies any recent illnesses or injuries. She denies any changes to her diet or exercise program. She is on no new medications. During the review of systems you note that she has felt fatigued, had some weight gain, has irregular periods, and has cold intolerance. Her past medical history is significant for one vaginal delivery and two cesarean sections. She is married, has three children, and owns a flower shop. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has coronary artery disease. There is no family history of cancers. On examination she appears her stated age. Her vital signs are normal. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. Her cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also unremarkable. Her rectal occult blood test is negative. Her deep tendon reflexes are delayed in response to a blow with the hammer, especially the Achilles tendons.What is the best choice for the cause of her constipation?A)Large bowel obstructionB)Irritable bowel syndromeC)Rectal cancerD)HypothyroidismAns:DFeedback:Many metabolic conditions can interfere with bowel motility. In this case the patient has many symptoms of hypothyroidism, including cold intolerance, weight gain, fatigue, constipation, and irregular menstrual cycles. On examination, thyromegaly and delayed reflexes can help to make the diagnosis. Medication will usually correct these symptoms.5.A 22-year-old law student comes to your office, complaining of severe abdominal pain radiating to his back. He states it began last night after hours of heavy drinking. He has had abdominal pain and vomiting in the past after drinking but never as bad as this. He cannot keep any food or water down, and these symptoms have been going on for almost 12 hours. He has had no recent illnesses or injuries. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies smoking or using illegal drugs but admits to drinking 6 to 10 beers per weekend night. He admits that last night he drank something like 14 drinks. On examination you find a young male appearing his stated age in some distress. He is leaning over on the examination table and holding his abdomen with his arms. His blood pressure is 90/60 and his pulse is 120. He is afebrile. His abdominal examination reveals normal bowel sounds, but he is very tender in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area. He has no Murphy's sign or tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The remainder of his abdominal examination is normal. His rectal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernias or tenderness with that examination. Blood work is pending. What etiology of abdominal pain is most likely causing his symptoms?A)Peptic ulcer diseaseB)Biliary colicC)Acute cholecystitisD)Acute pancreatitisAns:DFeedback:Acute pancreatitis causes epigastric and left upper quadrant pain and often radiates into the back. There is often a history of long-standing gallbladder disease or recent alcohol ingestion. Severe abdominal pain and vomiting are often seen. Medications such as proton pump inhibitors can also cause pancreatitis in people without these other risk factors. Treatment includes hydration, pain management, and bowel rest.6.A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about 3 days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, 3 days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over 50 years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 100.9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative. His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending.What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?A)Acute diverticulitisB)Acute cholecystitisC)Acute appendicitisD)Mesenteric ischemiaAns:AFeedback:Diverticulitis is caused by localized infections within the colonic diverticula. Constipation, fever, and abdominal pain are common. Mesenteric ischemia classically presents in older people with a history of vascular disease elsewhere. The typical pain is unusual in that it is not made worse by examination despite being severe. Some mistake this feature to indicate malingering, with bad results.7.A 77-year-old retired bus driver comes to your clinic for a physical examination at his wife's request. He has recently been losing weight and has felt very fatigued. He has had no chest pain, shortness of breath, nausea, vomiting, or fever. His past medical history includes colon cancer, for which he had surgery, and arthritis. He has been married for over 40 years. He denies any tobacco or drug use and has not drunk alcohol in over 40 years. His parents both died of cancer in their 60s. On examination his vital signs are normal. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are unremarkable. On abdominal examination you hear normal bowel sounds, but when you palpate his liver it is abnormal. His rectal examination is positive for occult blood.What further abnormality of the liver was likely found on examination?A)Smooth, large, nontender liverB)Irregular, large liverC)Smooth, large, tender liverAns:BFeedback:With his past history of colon cancer and with recent weight loss and fatigue, a relapse of his colon cancer would be expected. Colon cancer usually metastasizes to the liver, creating hard, irregular nodules, which can sometimes be palpated on examination. A smooth, large liver which is tender is often seen in hepatitis.8.A 26-year-old sports store manager comes to your clinic, complaining of severe right- sided abdominal pain for 12 hours. He began having a stomachache yesterday, with a decreased appetite, but today the pain seems to be just on the lower right side. He has had some nausea and vomiting but no constipation or diarrhea. His last bowel movement was last night and was normal. He has had no fever or chills. He denies any recent illnesses or injuries. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is engaged. He denies any tobacco or drug use and drinks four to six beers per week. His mother has breast cancer and his father has coronary artery disease. On examination he appears ill and is lying on his right side. His temperature is 100.4 and his heart rate is 110. His bowel sounds are decreased and he has rebound and involuntary guarding, one third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus in the right lower quadrant. His rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal.What is the most likely cause of his pain?A)Acute appendicitisB)Acute mechanical intestinal obstructionC)Acute cholecystitisD)Mesenteric ischemiaAns:AFeedback:Appendicitis is common in the young and usually presents with periumbilical pain that localizes to the right lower quadrant in an area known as McBurney's Point, described above as one third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus on the right. Rebound and guarding are common. Remote rebound or Rovsing's sign is also seen commonly when the course of appendicitis is advanced. Bowel movements are usually unaffected.9.A 15-year-old high school freshman is brought to the clinic by his mother because of chronic diarrhea. The mother states that for the past couple of years her son has had diarrhea after many meals. The patient states that the diarrhea seems the absolute worst after his school lunches. He describes his symptoms as cramping abdominal pain and gas followed by diarrhea. His stools are watery with no specific smell. He denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, weight loss, or fatigue. He has had no recent illness, injuries, or foreign travel. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a relaxed young man breathing comfortably. His vital signs are normal and his head, eyes, ears, throat, neck, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. His abdomen is soft and nondistended. His bowel sounds are active and he has no tenderness, no enlarged organs, and no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is nontender with no blood on the glove. You collect a stool sample for further study. What is the most likely explanation for this patient's chronic diarrhea?A)Malabsorption syndromeB)Osmotic diarrheaC)Secretory diarrheaAns:BFeedback:Usually related to lactose intolerance, watery diarrhea often follows meal ingestion. Crampy abdominal pain, distension, and gas often accompany symptoms. Diarrhea is often provoked by pizza, milkshakes, yogurt, and other lactose-containing foods. This condition is more common in African-Americans, Latinos, Native Americans, and Asians.10.A 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. It began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. It hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. She has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. She has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. She denies any other recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. On examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. She is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. Her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. Her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells.What type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?A)Kidney pain (from pyelonephritis)B)Ureteral pain (from a kidney stone)C)Musculoskeletal painD)Ischemic bowel painAns:BFeedback:The pain from a kidney stone causes dramatic, severe, colicky pain at the costovertebral angle that radiates across the flank and down into the groin.11.Chris is a 20-year-old college student who has had abdominal pain for 3 days. It started at his umbilicus and was associated with nausea and vomiting. He was unable to find a comfortable position. Yesterday, the pain became more severe and constant. Now, he hesitates to walk, because any motion makes the pain much worse. It is localized just medial and inferior to his iliac crest on the right. Which of the following is most likely?A)Peptic ulcerB)CholecystitisC)PancreatitisD)AppendicitisAns:DFeedback:This is a classic history for appendicitis. Notice that the pain has changed from visceral to parietal. It is well localized to the right lower quadrant, making appendicitis a strong consideration.12.Bill, a 55-year-old man, presents with pain in his epigastrium which lasts for 30 minutes or more at a time and has started recently. Which of the following should be considered?A)Peptic ulcerB)PancreatitisC)Myocardial ischemiaD)All of the aboveAns:DFeedback:Epigastric pain can have many causes. History and physical will help discern which causes are most likely, but it is important to realize that any of the above, including myocardial ischemia, is always a possibility. Pneumonia and gallbladder pain can also cause pain in this location.13.Monique is a 33-year-old administrative assistant who has had intermittent lower abdominal pain approximately one week a month for the past year. It is not related to her menses. She notes relief with defecation, and a change in form and frequency of her bowel movements with these episodes. Which of the following is most likely?A)Colon cancerB)CholecystitisC)Inflammatory bowel diseaseD)Irritable bowel syndromeAns:DFeedback:Although colon cancer should be a consideration, these symptoms are intermittent and no note is made of progression. Cholecystitis usually presents with right upper quadrant pain. Inflammatory bowel disease is often associated with fever and hematochezia. Because there is relief with defecation and there

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