UTA NURS 5338 URGENT EMERGENCIES
Complete Examination Questions and Correct Answers
Verified 100% Correct | Latest 2025/2026
SECTION 1: ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTIC APPROACH
Questions 1-10
Question 1
When assessing a patient, what is done first?
Answer: Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate (in that order)
Question 2
It's important for the FNP to understand that abdominal pain can be caused by problems outside
the abdomen, such as:
Answer: Myocardial infarction (MI) and pneumonias
Question 3
When assessing skin disease, what is important to include?
Answer: Measurements
Question 4
How is sepsis handled in the primary care setting?
Answer: Refer patient to the emergency department (ED)
Question 5
When periorbital cellulitis is diagnosed, what is the next step?
Answer: Refer to the emergency department (ED)
,Question 6
What is the obturator sign?
Answer: The patient lies on the back with hip and knee flexed at 90 degrees while the knee is
stabilized and the ankle rotated away from the body. Pain indicates irritation of the obturator
muscle.
Question 7
When prescribing NSAIDS for long-term use, what must always be assessed?
Answer: Kidney function
Question 8
What objective tests are conducted when Bell's Palsy is diagnosed?
Answer: Eyebrow raise and smile assessment
Question 9
Is an I&D procedure in primary care considered sterile?
Answer: Often not a sterile procedure
Question 10
What clinical prediction tool is used when DVT is suspected?
Answer: Wells score, along with D-dimer test (high sensitivity)
SECTION 2: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED INFECTIONS
Questions 11-25
Question 11
Describe the pharmacological treatment for gonorrhea.
, Answer: Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM as a single dose for persons weighing less than 150 kg. For
persons weighing more than 150 kg, ceftriaxone 1 gram IM as a single dose.
Question 12
Describe the pharmacological treatment for chlamydia.
Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg PO twice daily for 7 days. During pregnancy, azithromycin 1 gram
as a single dose.
Question 13
What are the alternative regimens for chlamydia treatment?
Answer: Gentamicin 240 mg IM as a single dose plus azithromycin 2 grams PO as a single
dose, OR Cefixime 800 mg orally as a single dose plus doxycycline 100 mg PO twice daily for 7
days (if chlamydia cannot be excluded).
Question 14
Describe assessment findings for bacterial vaginosis.
Answer: Most women with BV are asymptomatic. When symptomatic, findings include fishy or
musty vaginal odor (more prominent after sexual intercourse and menses), thin homogenous
discharge, no redness or edema, and normal bimanual exam.
Question 15
Describe the diagnostic study for bacterial vaginosis.
Answer: Amsel's criteria require three or more of the following: homogenous thin gray-white
discharge coating the vaginal wall, vaginal pH greater than 4.5, positive whiff test (amine odor
after application of 10% KOH), and presence of more than 20% clue cells on saline microscopy.
Question 16
What is the most reliable predictor of bacterial vaginosis?
Complete Examination Questions and Correct Answers
Verified 100% Correct | Latest 2025/2026
SECTION 1: ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTIC APPROACH
Questions 1-10
Question 1
When assessing a patient, what is done first?
Answer: Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate (in that order)
Question 2
It's important for the FNP to understand that abdominal pain can be caused by problems outside
the abdomen, such as:
Answer: Myocardial infarction (MI) and pneumonias
Question 3
When assessing skin disease, what is important to include?
Answer: Measurements
Question 4
How is sepsis handled in the primary care setting?
Answer: Refer patient to the emergency department (ED)
Question 5
When periorbital cellulitis is diagnosed, what is the next step?
Answer: Refer to the emergency department (ED)
,Question 6
What is the obturator sign?
Answer: The patient lies on the back with hip and knee flexed at 90 degrees while the knee is
stabilized and the ankle rotated away from the body. Pain indicates irritation of the obturator
muscle.
Question 7
When prescribing NSAIDS for long-term use, what must always be assessed?
Answer: Kidney function
Question 8
What objective tests are conducted when Bell's Palsy is diagnosed?
Answer: Eyebrow raise and smile assessment
Question 9
Is an I&D procedure in primary care considered sterile?
Answer: Often not a sterile procedure
Question 10
What clinical prediction tool is used when DVT is suspected?
Answer: Wells score, along with D-dimer test (high sensitivity)
SECTION 2: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED INFECTIONS
Questions 11-25
Question 11
Describe the pharmacological treatment for gonorrhea.
, Answer: Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM as a single dose for persons weighing less than 150 kg. For
persons weighing more than 150 kg, ceftriaxone 1 gram IM as a single dose.
Question 12
Describe the pharmacological treatment for chlamydia.
Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg PO twice daily for 7 days. During pregnancy, azithromycin 1 gram
as a single dose.
Question 13
What are the alternative regimens for chlamydia treatment?
Answer: Gentamicin 240 mg IM as a single dose plus azithromycin 2 grams PO as a single
dose, OR Cefixime 800 mg orally as a single dose plus doxycycline 100 mg PO twice daily for 7
days (if chlamydia cannot be excluded).
Question 14
Describe assessment findings for bacterial vaginosis.
Answer: Most women with BV are asymptomatic. When symptomatic, findings include fishy or
musty vaginal odor (more prominent after sexual intercourse and menses), thin homogenous
discharge, no redness or edema, and normal bimanual exam.
Question 15
Describe the diagnostic study for bacterial vaginosis.
Answer: Amsel's criteria require three or more of the following: homogenous thin gray-white
discharge coating the vaginal wall, vaginal pH greater than 4.5, positive whiff test (amine odor
after application of 10% KOH), and presence of more than 20% clue cells on saline microscopy.
Question 16
What is the most reliable predictor of bacterial vaginosis?
