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NRNP 6665-01 Week 11 Final Exam Solutions 2026/2027 Complete Final Exam Guide | Actual Questions & Verified Solutions | PMHNP Lifespan Psychiatry | Pass Guarantee

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NRNP 6665-01 Week 11 Final Exam Solutions 2026/2027 Complete Final Exam Guide | Actual Questions & Verified Solutions | PMHNP Lifespan Psychiatry | Pass Guarantee

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NRNP 6665-01
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Subido en
22 de enero de 2026
Número de páginas
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Escrito en
2025/2026
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NRNP 6665-01 Week 11 Final Exam Solutions 2026/2027
Complete Final Exam Guide | Actual Questions & Verified
Solutions | PMHNP Lifespan Psychiatry | Pass Guarantee



85 Evidence-Based Multiple-Choice Items | Integrated Child, Adult & Geriatric Psychiatry
| High-Order Clinical Judgment Focus

1.​ A 19-year-old college freshman is referred by student-counseling after 6 weeks of
insomnia, declining grades, and “weird thoughts.” He reports classmates can
“read his mind,” hearing a running commentary while walking, and believes his
computer camera watches him. He has no mood elevation, no substance use,
and no medical problems. PHQ-9 = 4, GAD-7 = 5, PSYRATS-AH = 18. His mother
has schizophrenia; father has type-2 diabetes. Mental-status exam: cooperative,
poor eye contact, linear but guarded, affect constricted, thought process
circumstantial with referential ideation, no suicidal plan. What is the most
accurate DSM-5-TR diagnosis?​
A. Major depressive disorder with psychotic features​
B. Brief psychotic disorder​
C. Delusional disorder​
D. Schizophreniform disorder​
Correct Answer: D​
Rationale: 1–6 months of continuous symptoms with attenuated functional
decline and first-rank auditory hallucinations meet schizophreniform criteria;
absence of prominent mood episode excludes psychotic depression. Brief
psychotic disorder lasts < 1 month; delusional disorder requires non-bizarre
delusions only.
2.​ A 17-year-old cis-female presents with 4 weeks of “racing thoughts,” decreased
need for sleep (3–4 h), spending sprees, hyper-sexuality with two new partners,
and 5 lb weight loss. She had a similar 3-week episode at age 15 that resolved
without treatment. Urine tox negative, TSH normal, no medical issues. CBCL
shows elevated aggressive & attention sub-scores. Which next step best
confirms bipolar I diagnosis?​
A. Obtain serum cortisol​
B. Collateral history from parents & school​

, C. Order brain MRI with contrast​
D. Start sertraline 25 mg for comorbid anxiety​
Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Confirmation of previous manic episode (> 3 mood-congruent
symptoms with impairment) establishes lifetime manic episode required for
bipolar I; cortisol and imaging are low-yield in straightforward manic
presentation; SSRI risks switching.
3.​ A 72-year-old widowed accountant is brought by daughter for “memory lapses.”
He got lost driving to a familiar store, has misplaced bills, and repeats questions.
MoCA = 22/30 (minus 3 recall, 2 visuospatial, 1 attention). He scores 6 on
GDS-15. He takes metoprolol, atorvastatin, OTC diphenhydramine nightly for
sleep. Vital signs stable; labs reveal TSH 6.5 mIU/L (nl 0.4–4), B12 180 pg/mL
(low). Which diagnosis is most accurate at this time?​
A. Major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease​
B. Major neurocognitive disorder due to multiple etiologies (possible B12
deficiency + hypothyroid)​
C. Mild neurocognitive disorder, Lewy-body type​
D. Persistent depressive disorder with cognitive impairment​
Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Cognitive deficits + reversible contributors (hypothyroid, low-normal
B12, anticholinergic use) meet criteria for major NCD due to multiple etiologies;
no fluctuation, parkinsonism, or visual hallucinations to suggest Lewy-body.
4.​ A 9-year-old boy is evaluated for “constant worries.” For 8 months he worries
about tornadoes, parents’ safety, and grades; seeks reassurance 10–15× daily,
stomach-aches cause tardiness. SCARED score = 38 (parent), 34 (child). No tics,
no mood swings, BMI 50th %. Which first-line medication is best supported by
AACAP guidelines?​
A. Sertraline 25 mg daily​
B. Methylphenidate 10 mg BID​
C. Risperidone 0.5 mg HS​
D. Clonidine 0.1 mg patch weekly​
Correct Answer: A​
Rationale: SSRI (sertraline) has FDA approval for pediatric GAD ≥ 7 yrs and
strongest evidence; stimulants, antipsychotics, and α-agonists lack data for
primary GAD.
5.​ A 34-year-old veteran presents with 14 months of daily intrusive memories of IED
explosion, nightmares 4× week, avoids fireworks, hyper-startle, and guilt over
surviving. PCL-5 = 58; no substance use; TSH normal; no manic episode. He
failed 12 sessions VA CPT 2 yrs ago. He now requests medication. Which

, regimen is APA-guideline recommended first-line?​
A. Sertraline 50 mg daily + twelve 90-min prolonged-exposure sessions​
B. Paroxetine 20 mg + trauma-focused CBT​
C. Topiramate 100 mg BID + mindfulness group​
D. Prazosin 6 mg HS for nightmares only​
Correct Answer: A​
Rationale: SSRIs remain first-line pharmacotherapy for PTSD; combining with
evidence-based psychotherapy (prolonged exposure) improves remission.
Topiramate is second-line; prazosin monotherapy targets only nightmares.
6.​ A 26-year-old cis-female with borderline personality disorder has had 4
psychiatric admissions in 18 months for self-laceration after perceived
abandonment. She attends weekly DBT but continues cutting weekly. She
declines antipsychotics due to weight gain. Which pharmacologic adjunct best
reduces self-harm per Cochrane meta-analysis?​
A. Lithium carbonate 900 mg daily (target level 0.8)​
B. Lamotrigine 200 mg daily​
C. Quetiapine XR 150 mg HS​
D. Fluvoxamine 100 mg daily​
Correct Answer: A​
Rationale: Lithium significantly decreases suicidal behavior and self-harm in
mood-dysregulated cluster-B patients regardless of bipolar status; lamotrigine
lacks data for self-injury.
7.​ A 16-year-old transgender female (on estradiol 4 mg daily) endorses 3 weeks of
hopeless mood, anhedonia, fatigue, passive death wishes, and one aborted
hanging attempt. PHQ-A = 16, Columbia-Suicide-Severity = 6. She refuses
inpatient but will do intensive outpatient. Which medication strategy is safest?​
A. Start sertraline 25 mg daily; re-assess in 1 week​
B. Start fluoxetine 10 mg daily (FDA-approved for youth) with weekly follow-up​
C. Start venlafaxine 37.5 mg XR daily (activating)​
D. Start bupropion XL 150 mg daily (less sexual side effects)​
Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Fluoxetine has FDA indication for pediatric depression and lowest
suicidality signal among antidepressants; weekly monitoring meets APA safety
guidelines. Sertraline is acceptable but fluoxetine has strongest youth evidence.
8.​ A 55-year-old man with cirrhosis (Child-Pugh B) develops depressive episode
after variceal bleed. PHQ-9 = 17, no mania, no active alcohol. Which
antidepressant is best in this hepatic impairment?​
A. Duloxetine 30 mg daily​
B. Citalopram 20 mg daily​

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