Page 1 of 86
“MSN RESPIRATORY DUNPHY EXAM 2026
”LATEST EXAM 2026 – 2027 SOLVED
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100%
GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL REVISED
100% GUARANTEE PASS
MSN Respiratory Q-A-Chapter 10-Dunphy, Ch 6-FNP Stewart 2026 RESPIRATORY,
Respiratory Questions
1. In a patient in status asthmaticus, the FNP would most likely identify which
of the following on a chest radiograph?
A. Atelectasis
B. Effusion
C. Hyperinflation
D. Pleural opacities
Answer/Rationale: 1. C. Chest radiography is indicated in patients who have an
atypical presentation or in those who do not respond to therapy.
2. Ipratropium is available in a pressurized metered-dose inhaler or solution
for nebulization and:
A. Has dose-related adverse effects including nausea, vomiting, seizures, and
arrhythmias.
B. Is a short-acting bronchodilator administered four times daily as
maintenance therapy for COPD.
, Page 2 of 86
C. Can increase the risk of bone mineral density and/or bone fractures.
D. Increases the risk of oral candidiasis, hoarseness, and bruising of the skin.
Answer/Rationale: 2. B. Ipratropium, a SAMA, is as effective or better in improving
FEV1 as SABA without tachycardia side effects. SAMAs decrease function residual
capacity and residual volume and effectively reduce hyperinflation.
3. Pulmonary tuberculosis is caused by what gram-positive, rod-shaped
aerobic bacterium?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Streptococcus
C. Renibacterium
D. Mycobacterium
Answer/Rationale: 3. D. The lungs are the major site for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
for primary infection and disease.
4. M. tuberculosis is spread by:
A. Body fluids.
B. Airborne droplets.
C. Fomites.
D. Ingestion of bacteria.
Answer/Rationale: 4. B. The bacteria are spread from person to person in tiny
microscopic droplets when a TB sufferer coughs, sneezes, speaks, sings, or laughs.
Only people with active TB can spread the disease to others.
5. A 53-year-old male with a 45 pack-year smoking history presents to the
nurse practitioner's office for a follow-up visit. This patient had a recent
emergency department admission for exertional dyspnea that has progressed
to dyspnea at rest and a cough for 1 month. The nurse practitioner received
the chest radiograph report, which demonstrates a suspicious nodule in the
right hilar region. The nurse practitioner suspects small cell lung cancer and
understands that:
A. Small-cell lung cancer differs from non-small-cell lung cancer because
small-cell lung cancer grows slowly. -- QUICK
B. Small-cell lung cancer responds well to chemotherapy and radiation
therapy.
C. Small-cell lung cancer is generally not associated with distinct
, Page 3 of 86
paraneoplastic syndromes. - ASSOCIATED
D. Small-cell lung cancer metastasizes slowly.-QUICKLY
Answer/Rationale: 5. B. Small-cell lung cancer responds well to chemotherapy and
radiation therapy. Small-cell lung cancer (also called oat cell cancer) and non-small-
cell lung cancer are the two main types of lung cancer. Small-cell lung cancer
accounts for approximately 15% of all cases of lung cancer. Small-cell lung cancer
grows rapidly and spreads quickly. Small-cell lung cancer is frequently associated
with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
6. HIV co-infection is the most potent immunosuppressive risk factor for which
of the following?
A. Distal acinar emphysema
B. Active TB disease
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Paraseptal emphysema
Answer/Rationale: 6. B. People living with HIV are more likely than others to become
sick with TB if they are exposed and become infected. According to the Center for
Disease Control and Prevention, tuberculosis remains a serious threat in the United
States, especially for people living with HIV. People living with HIV are more likely
than others to become sick with TB.
7. Screening for latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is recommended:
A. In persons at risk of recent infection and patients infected with HIV.
B. Groups with an increased flow of progression to active disease.
C. Persons with nocturnal coughing.
D. In persons whose CD4 cell count increases to counts of > 600 cells/μL.
Answer/Rationale: 7. A. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention,
screening for latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is recommended for HIV-infected
persons and those at risk of recent LTBI infection. The diagnosis of LTBI is based on
information gathered from the medical history, a tuberculin skin test (TST) or
interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) result, chest radiographs, physical
examination, and in certain circumstances, sputum examinations. The presence of
TB must be excluded before treatment for LTBI is initiated, because failure to do so
may result in inadequate treatment and development of drug resistance. A TST
reaction of ≥ 5 mm of induration is considered positive in patients with HIV.
, Page 4 of 86
8. According to the EPR-3 Guidelines, poor asthma control can increase future
risks of asthma, including all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Airway remodeling.
B. Accelerated decrease in lung function.
C. Generally no side effects of treatment.
D. Fatal asthma.
Answer/Rationale: 8. C. Poor asthma control can increase future risks of asthma,
including exacerbation, accelerated decrease in lung function, and side effects of
treatment. Increased risk for fatal asthma includes poor asthma control.
9. M. Pneumonia empiric treatment for suspected mycoplasma pneumonia
involves which of the following?
A. Five-day course of oral azithromycin (500 mg for the first dose, then 250 mg
daily for the next four days)
B. Dexilant 60 mg 1 tablet twice daily for 14 days
C. Treat symptomatically
D. Palivizumab according to weight for 14 days
Answer/Rationale: 9. A. CAP may be treated with monotherapy or combination
therapy. Effective monotherapy antibiotics include: combination therapy, which
usually consists of ceftriaxone plus doxycycline or azithromycin doxycycline, and
respiratory quinolones. Immunocompromised hosts who present with CAP are
treated in the same manner as otherwise healthy hosts but may require a longer
duration of therapy.
10. Which of the following is considered accurate for Respiratory Syntial Virus
(RSV)?
A. Order palivmar 250 mg twice daily for 14 days at the onset of RSV
symptoms.
B. RSV is a highly contagious infection, occurring most often during the late
spring and summer months. ----WINTER, FALL
C. Treat symptoms with Aspirin 100 mg/5 mL. Take 5 mL orally three times
daily.
D. Premature infants have the highest risk of RSV.
Answer/Rationale: 10. D. Premature infants have the highest risk of RSV.
11. One of the most important initial steps for management of COPD is to:
A. Obtain base-line arterial blood gases.
“MSN RESPIRATORY DUNPHY EXAM 2026
”LATEST EXAM 2026 – 2027 SOLVED
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100%
GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL REVISED
100% GUARANTEE PASS
MSN Respiratory Q-A-Chapter 10-Dunphy, Ch 6-FNP Stewart 2026 RESPIRATORY,
Respiratory Questions
1. In a patient in status asthmaticus, the FNP would most likely identify which
of the following on a chest radiograph?
A. Atelectasis
B. Effusion
C. Hyperinflation
D. Pleural opacities
Answer/Rationale: 1. C. Chest radiography is indicated in patients who have an
atypical presentation or in those who do not respond to therapy.
2. Ipratropium is available in a pressurized metered-dose inhaler or solution
for nebulization and:
A. Has dose-related adverse effects including nausea, vomiting, seizures, and
arrhythmias.
B. Is a short-acting bronchodilator administered four times daily as
maintenance therapy for COPD.
, Page 2 of 86
C. Can increase the risk of bone mineral density and/or bone fractures.
D. Increases the risk of oral candidiasis, hoarseness, and bruising of the skin.
Answer/Rationale: 2. B. Ipratropium, a SAMA, is as effective or better in improving
FEV1 as SABA without tachycardia side effects. SAMAs decrease function residual
capacity and residual volume and effectively reduce hyperinflation.
3. Pulmonary tuberculosis is caused by what gram-positive, rod-shaped
aerobic bacterium?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Streptococcus
C. Renibacterium
D. Mycobacterium
Answer/Rationale: 3. D. The lungs are the major site for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
for primary infection and disease.
4. M. tuberculosis is spread by:
A. Body fluids.
B. Airborne droplets.
C. Fomites.
D. Ingestion of bacteria.
Answer/Rationale: 4. B. The bacteria are spread from person to person in tiny
microscopic droplets when a TB sufferer coughs, sneezes, speaks, sings, or laughs.
Only people with active TB can spread the disease to others.
5. A 53-year-old male with a 45 pack-year smoking history presents to the
nurse practitioner's office for a follow-up visit. This patient had a recent
emergency department admission for exertional dyspnea that has progressed
to dyspnea at rest and a cough for 1 month. The nurse practitioner received
the chest radiograph report, which demonstrates a suspicious nodule in the
right hilar region. The nurse practitioner suspects small cell lung cancer and
understands that:
A. Small-cell lung cancer differs from non-small-cell lung cancer because
small-cell lung cancer grows slowly. -- QUICK
B. Small-cell lung cancer responds well to chemotherapy and radiation
therapy.
C. Small-cell lung cancer is generally not associated with distinct
, Page 3 of 86
paraneoplastic syndromes. - ASSOCIATED
D. Small-cell lung cancer metastasizes slowly.-QUICKLY
Answer/Rationale: 5. B. Small-cell lung cancer responds well to chemotherapy and
radiation therapy. Small-cell lung cancer (also called oat cell cancer) and non-small-
cell lung cancer are the two main types of lung cancer. Small-cell lung cancer
accounts for approximately 15% of all cases of lung cancer. Small-cell lung cancer
grows rapidly and spreads quickly. Small-cell lung cancer is frequently associated
with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
6. HIV co-infection is the most potent immunosuppressive risk factor for which
of the following?
A. Distal acinar emphysema
B. Active TB disease
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Paraseptal emphysema
Answer/Rationale: 6. B. People living with HIV are more likely than others to become
sick with TB if they are exposed and become infected. According to the Center for
Disease Control and Prevention, tuberculosis remains a serious threat in the United
States, especially for people living with HIV. People living with HIV are more likely
than others to become sick with TB.
7. Screening for latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is recommended:
A. In persons at risk of recent infection and patients infected with HIV.
B. Groups with an increased flow of progression to active disease.
C. Persons with nocturnal coughing.
D. In persons whose CD4 cell count increases to counts of > 600 cells/μL.
Answer/Rationale: 7. A. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention,
screening for latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is recommended for HIV-infected
persons and those at risk of recent LTBI infection. The diagnosis of LTBI is based on
information gathered from the medical history, a tuberculin skin test (TST) or
interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) result, chest radiographs, physical
examination, and in certain circumstances, sputum examinations. The presence of
TB must be excluded before treatment for LTBI is initiated, because failure to do so
may result in inadequate treatment and development of drug resistance. A TST
reaction of ≥ 5 mm of induration is considered positive in patients with HIV.
, Page 4 of 86
8. According to the EPR-3 Guidelines, poor asthma control can increase future
risks of asthma, including all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Airway remodeling.
B. Accelerated decrease in lung function.
C. Generally no side effects of treatment.
D. Fatal asthma.
Answer/Rationale: 8. C. Poor asthma control can increase future risks of asthma,
including exacerbation, accelerated decrease in lung function, and side effects of
treatment. Increased risk for fatal asthma includes poor asthma control.
9. M. Pneumonia empiric treatment for suspected mycoplasma pneumonia
involves which of the following?
A. Five-day course of oral azithromycin (500 mg for the first dose, then 250 mg
daily for the next four days)
B. Dexilant 60 mg 1 tablet twice daily for 14 days
C. Treat symptomatically
D. Palivizumab according to weight for 14 days
Answer/Rationale: 9. A. CAP may be treated with monotherapy or combination
therapy. Effective monotherapy antibiotics include: combination therapy, which
usually consists of ceftriaxone plus doxycycline or azithromycin doxycycline, and
respiratory quinolones. Immunocompromised hosts who present with CAP are
treated in the same manner as otherwise healthy hosts but may require a longer
duration of therapy.
10. Which of the following is considered accurate for Respiratory Syntial Virus
(RSV)?
A. Order palivmar 250 mg twice daily for 14 days at the onset of RSV
symptoms.
B. RSV is a highly contagious infection, occurring most often during the late
spring and summer months. ----WINTER, FALL
C. Treat symptoms with Aspirin 100 mg/5 mL. Take 5 mL orally three times
daily.
D. Premature infants have the highest risk of RSV.
Answer/Rationale: 10. D. Premature infants have the highest risk of RSV.
11. One of the most important initial steps for management of COPD is to:
A. Obtain base-line arterial blood gases.
