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“AAPC CPC EXAM PREP COMPLIANCE AND REGULATORY EXAM”LATEST EXAM SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100% GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL REVISED 100% GUARANTEE PASS

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“AAPC CPC EXAM PREP COMPLIANCE AND REGULATORY EXAM”LATEST EXAM SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100% GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL REVISED 100% GUARANTEE PASS

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Page 1 of 94


“AAPC CPC EXAM PREP COMPLIANCE AND
REGULATORY EXAM”LATEST EXAM SOLVED
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100%
GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL REVISED
100% GUARANTEE PASS



AAPC CPC exam prep Compliance and Regulatory




Which statement is TRUE for reporting external cause codes of morbidity (V00-
Y99)?


A. All external cause codes do not require a seventh character.
B. Only report one external cause code to fully explain each cause.
C. Report code Y92.9 if the place of occurrence is not stated.
D. External cause codes should never be sequenced as a first-listed or primary
code
D. External cause codes should never be sequenced as a first-listed or primary code


Multiple choice D is the correct answer. The ICD-10-CM guidelines for the External
Causes Of Morbidity (V00-Y99) is in Section I.C.20.
Which statement is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus?


A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the
default type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
B. When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reported.

, Page 2 of 94


C. The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1.
D. When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the
code(s) from category E08-E13 are not reported as a primary code.
A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default
type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus.


The ICD-10-CM coding guidelines for diabetes mellitus are found in Section I.C.4.
Multiple choice A is the correct answer, this guideline is in Section I.C.4.a.2.
What is NOT included in CPT® surgical package?


A. Typical postoperative follow-up care
B. One related Evaluation and Management service on the same date of the
procedure
C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting
from the initial procedure
D. Evaluating the patient in the post-anesthesia recovery area
C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the
initial procedure


The CPT® surgical package definition is in the Surgery Guidelines found in the
CPT® code book (right after the Anesthesia section of codes). Multiple choice C is
the correct answer, because modifier 78 is reported on a procedure code to indicate
a patient's return to the OR for a complication (unplanned return) that has occurred
during the postoperative period of the initial procedure.
What is PHI?


A. Physician-health care interchange
B. Private health insurance
C. Protected health information
D. Provider identified incident-to
C. Protected health information


Protected health information under the Health Information Portability and
Accountability Act (HIPAA) is any information, whether oral or recorded, in any form

, Page 3 of 94


or medium that is created or received by a health care provider, health plan, public
health authority, employer, life insurer, school or university, or health care
clearinghouse relating to the past, present, or future physical or mental health or
condition of an individual, the provision of health services to that individual, or
payment around those services. Only health information at the individual level is
covered; health information of groups is not.
Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (O00-O9A):


A. These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records.
B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters.
C. Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes.
D. The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication
during the pregnancy.
B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters.


According to ICD-10-CM guidelines (Section I.C.15.a.1): Chapter 15 codes have
sequencing priority over codes from other chapters. Additional codes from other
chapters may be used in conjunction with chapter 15 codes to further specify
conditions.
When a patient is having a tenotomy performed on the abductor hallucis
muscle, where is this muscle located?


A. Foot
B. Upper Arm
C. Upper Leg
D. Hand
A. Foot


The abductor hallucis is a muscle of the foot that abducts the big toe. In the CPT®
Index look for Tenotomy. There are many anatomical areas to choose from, but you
will find this muscle located in the description of code 28240. All the codes in that
section deal with the foot.
Fracturing the acetabulum involves what area?

, Page 4 of 94


A. Skull
B. Shoulder
C. Pelvis
D. Leg
C. Pelvis


The acetabulum is the cup-shaped socket of the hip joint which is part of the pelvis.
You can locate this answer in the ICD-10-CM codebook. In the ICD-10-CM
Alphabetic Index look for Fracture, traumatic/pelvis and you will see acetabulum
listed under pelvis.
Ventral, umbilical, spigelian and incisional are types of:


A. Surgical approaches
B. Hernias
C. Organs found in the digestive system
D. Cardiac catheterizations
B. Hernias


These are types of hernias. CPT® codes 49491-49657 are categorized by the type
of hernias to be repaired.
An arteriovenous anastomosis is used to increase blood flow in hemodialysis.
Which one of the following describes a direct arteriovenous anastomosis?


A. Insertion of a cannula
B. A section of artery and a neighboring vein are joined
C. A donor's vein is used to connect an artery and a vein
D. Radical hysterectomy not otherwise specified
B. A section of artery and a neighboring vein are joined


CPT® Professional code book, an illustration given under code 36821, "In a direct
arteriovenous anastomosis, a section of artery and a neighboring vein are joined,
allowing blood flow down the artery and into the vein for the purpose of increasing
blood flow, usually in hemodialysis."
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