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NSG 3029 Final Exam Answer|Verified documents|latest 2021|South University South University NSG 3029 Final Exam NSG 3029 Final Exam (Latest): South University: Foundations of Nursing Research South University NSG3029 Final Exam (Latest 2020): Foundations of Nursing Research 1. A nurse researcher is conducting a retrospective study and using a chart review to collect data. What type of data willbe collected? A. Primary data B. Secondary data C. Internal data D. External data 2. A nurse researcher is conducting a survey determining students' level of comfort with clinical skills. What type ofdata will be collected? A. Primary data B. Secondary data C. Internal data D. External data 3. A nurse researcher is measuring blood pressures of women who are diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. The sphygmomanometer has not been calibrated correctly, which results in inaccurate readings. What type of error is this? A. Sampling error B. Random error C. Systematic error D. Non-systematic error 4. A researcher is interested in determining whether an instrument has stability over time. What test should be conducted? A. Test of internal consistency B. Test-retest reliability C. Test of concurrent validity D. Test of content validity 5. A researcher is interested in determining whether the measurement of an instrument to be used in a research study makes sense. What assessment should be made? A. Test of internal consistency B. Test-retest reliability C. Test of concurrent validity D. Test of content validity 6. A non-reproducible error that arises from a variety of factors in measurement and does not affect the average scores but do affect the variation that exists around the average is called the: A. Measurement error B. Systematic error C. Random error D. Instrument error 7. The capability of an instrument to detect a disease if it is present is called: A. Specificity B. Sensitivity C. Discriminate validity D. Predictive validity 8. Examples of primary data collection methods include all of the following except: A. Questionnaires B. Observation C. Chart review D. Focus groups 9. Examples of secondary data collection methods include all of the following except: A. Patient satisfaction surveys B. Electronic medical record C. Government databases D. Patient physiologic measures 10. An advantage of using an existing instrument in research studies includes: A. Development of a test blueprint B. Ability to replicate a study C. Comparison of results to previous study D. Both B and C 1. The magnitude of the impact that the intervention or variable is expected to have on the outcome is referred to as the: A. Power B. Experimenter effect C. Effect size D. Treatment effect 2. Which type of error is related to the power of the statistical test? A. Type 1 error B. Type 2 error C. Measurement error D. Sampling error 3. Control of bias can be accomplished through use of all of the following measures except: A. Using more than one observer B. Allowing subjects to volunteer for the study C. Blinding treatment groups to the researcher D. Using a carefully constructed demographic questionnaire 4. Which type of error is frequently referred to as the level of significance? A. Type 1 error B. Type 2 error C. Measurement error D. Sampling error 5. The ability to generalize findings from a research study to other populations, places, and situations is referred to as: A. Internal validity B. Reliability C. External validity D. Population validity 6. The confidence that an experimental treatment or condition made a difference and that rival explanations were ruled out through study design and control is called: A. Internal validity B. Reliability C. External validity D. Population validity 7. All of the following are threats to external validity except: A. Selection effect B. Experimenter effect C. Maturation D. History 8. All of the following strategies help to increase the trustworthiness of qualitative research except: A. Triangulation B. Bracketing C. Audit trail D. Random Selection ANS: D 9. Threats to validity can be handled by the researcher in all of these ways except: A. Eliminate the threat B. Control the threat C. Account for the threat D. Ignore the threat ANS: D 10. A threat to internal validity in which the subject reactions are due to the effect of being observed are referred to as: A. Selection effects B. Treatment effects C. Experimental mortality D. Maturation 11. The ability to generalize findings from a research study to other populations, places, and situations is referred to as: A. Internal validity B. Reliability C. External validity D. Population validity 12. The confidence that an experimental treatment or condition made a difference and that rival explanations were ruled out through study design and control is called: A. Internal validity B. Reliability C. External validity D. Population validity 1. The type of question used in descriptive studies that is designed to describe what is going on or what exists islabeled as: A. Descriptive B. Correlational C. Relational D. Predictive 2. The type of question used in descriptive studies that is designed to investigate an association is labeled as: A. Descriptive B. Correlational C. Relational D. Predictive 3. The use of survey designs offers many advantages for the researcher including all of the following except: A. Content is flexible and scope is broad B. Cost effective method for reaching large populations C. Questions are predetermined and standardized for all subjects eliminating bias D. Content limited to subject recall, self-knowledge, and willingness to respond honestly ANS: D 4. The design that is used to examine simultaneously groups of subjects in various stages of development with theintent to describe differences among them is called a: A. Cross-sectional design B. Longitudinal design C. Case study design D. Correlational design 5. The type of design used in descriptive studies that describes the strength and nature of relationships between two variables without clarifying the underlying causes of that relationship is labeled as: A. Cross-sectional design B. Longitudinal design C. Case study design D. Correlational design ANS: D 6. Although not considered the strongest evidence for change in nursing practice, findings from descriptive studies can be used in the following way(s) to support evidence-based nursing practice: A. Care planning B. Nursing interventions C. Diagnosis of patient care conditions D. All of the above ANS: D 7. What two strategies can be used by a researcher to collect longitudinal data? A. Retrospective and prospective methods B. Retrospective and cross-sectional methods C. Prospective and cross-sectional methods D. Retrospective, prospective, and cross-sectional methods 8. A variable that is not measured in correlation studies but is related to each variable in the relationship and may affectthe correlation of the data negatively is called a: A. Predictive variable B. Spurious variable C. Suppressor variable D. Correlation variable 9. The requirements for a single-subject study design includes all of the following except: A. Continuous assessment of the variable of interest B. Assessment during a baseline period before the intervention C. Measurement of outcomes at pre-determined follow-up times D. Continuing assessment of the responses of the individual after the intervention 10. A typical question for a cross-sectional type of descriptive research design would be: A. What is the effect of urinary incontinence on the quality of life of long term care residents over time? B. What are the differences in job satisfaction among nurses working on different types of units? C. Can feeding performance in neonates be predicted by indicators of feeding readiness? D. What were the responses of an individual with Type II diabetes to one-on-one counseling from a nurse? 1. The symbol used to designate a population mean is: A. N B. x C. m [mu] D. p 2. Common descriptive statistics are classified in all the following ways except: A. Counts of data B. Measures of central tendency C. Graphic presentations D. Sampling distributions and standard error ANS: D 3. A statistical term that means a count of the instances a number occurs in a data set is called: A. Interval B. Frequency C. Ratio D. Rate 4. A type of frequency distribution in which variables with different values are plotted as a graph on x-axes and y- axes and the shape can be visualized is referred to as a: A. Histogram B. Frequency table C. Scatter plot D. Line graph 5. A type of graphic presentation of distribution that indicates the nature of the relationship between two variables measured from the same subject at the same time is referred to as a: A. Histogram B. Frequency table C. Scatter plot D. Line graph 6. A measure of central tendency that is the average is called the: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range 7. A measure of central tendency that is the most frequently ~ occurring value in the data set is called the: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range 8. A measure of central tendency that is the exact midpoint of the numbers of the data set is called the: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range 9. Bar graphs are easiest to create for what types of descriptive data? A. Nominal and ordinal B. Interval and ratio C. Nominal and interval D. Ordinal and ratio 10. A calculated count derived from dividing the frequency of an event in a given time period by all possible occurrences of the event during the same time period is referred to as the: A. Interval B. Frequency C. Ratio D. Rate ANS: D 1. Quantitative research questions identify all the following elements except: A. Population of interest B. Intervention being studied C. Case analysis D. Outcome of interest 2. Which variable is not part of the central study but exerts an effect: A. Dependent variable B. Extraneous variable C. Intervention variable D. Independent variable 3. Quantitative designs can be classified in the following ways except: A. Experimental designs B. Quasi-experimental designs C. Comparison designs D. Time-series designs 4. The quantitative design that is considered the Gold Standard: A. Experimental designs B. Quasi-experimental designs C. Comparison of intact groups D. Time-series designs 5. Strengths of experimental designs include all the following except: A. Considered the strongest evidence for practice B. Allow a definitive conclusion about cause and effect C. Direct relationship to evidence based practice D. Recognized and valued by other disciplines 6. The hallmark of the experimental design is: A. Independent variable B. Extraneous variables are controlled C. Use of a control group D. Subjects are randomly assigned to groups ANS: D 7. Quasi-experimental designs include the following characteristics except: A. Independent variables B. Dependent variables C. Data collected numerically D. Randomize subjects to groups ANS: D 8. The primary difference between a quasi-experimental design and experimental design is: A. The way results are interpreted B. The way the questions are worded C. The way variables are assigned D. The way interventions are applied 9. Time-series design involves the following steps except: A. Population of interest is identified B. Variables are defined C. Baseline condition is measured D. Study question applied ANS: D 10. There are a variety of uses for quantitative evidence in nursing practice, including all the following except: A. Assessment B. Generalization C. Interventions D. Evaluation of outcomes 1. Inferential analysis answers the question: A. What is going on? B. What is the question? C. Are you sure? D. Who is the Primary Investigator? 2. Quantitative analyses are generally grouped into the following categories: A. Parametric and non parametric B. Quasi-experimental and Non-Quasi-experimental C. Experimental and Non-experimental D. Time-series analysis 3. The strength of inferential analysis is derived from: A. Comparison of differences to standard error B. Hypothesis testing C. Calculation of the probability of error D. A and C ANS: D 4. Confidence intervals are more accurate in representing population parameters than: A. Variable analysis B. Point estimates C. Sample size descriptors D. Unit measurements 5. The three commonly accepted ways to find the minimum importance difference include all of the following except: A. Compare the change in the outcome to some other measure of chance B. Compare the change to a sampling distribution to determine its probability C. Consult an expert panel D. Statistical Analysis 6. Experimental, Quasi-experimental, causal-comparative, and case-control designs are all studies suited to this type of analysis: A. Bivariate B. Inferential C. Historical D. Univariate 7. The researcher makes decisions about the appropriateness of a statistical test based on the following factors except: A. Number of groups to be tested B. Level of measurement of the independent and dependent variables C. Statistical and mathematical assumptions of the test D. Systematic appraisal ANS: D 8. There are three versions of the t-test except: A. One-sample t-test B. Two-sample t-test C. Independent-samples t-test D. Paired-sample t-test 9. There are three kinds of chi square tests that are commonly used, including all the following except: A. Chi square test of association B. Chi square test of independence C. Chi square test of fit D. Chi square test of assumptions ANS: D 10. Which test listed below is the most frequently used statistical test: A. Mean B. Standard Deviation C. Chi Square D. ANOVA ANS: D 1. What type of research is used in a preliminary way to establish basic knowledge about a group individual'sresponse to health and illness? A. Interpretive B. Quantitative C. Phenomenological D. Descriptive ANS: D 2. The purpose of Qualitative research is to: A. Gather data to illuminate the meaning of an event or phenomenon. B. Develop understanding from the perspective of the informant. C. Describe the acceptability of an intervention. D. All of the above ANS: D 3. In qualitative research, the researcher specifically states: A. The objectives B. The aims C. The research question D. The hypothesis 4. Qualitative research involves what type of approach to understanding the experiences of others: A. Interpretive B. Descriptive C. Phenomenological D. Systematic ANS: D 5. Trustworthiness includes the following characteristics: A. Credibility B. Confirmability C. Dependability D. All of the above ANS: D 6. Prolonged engagement, bracketing, triangulation, and audit trail are all ways to limit: A. Confabulation B. Bias C. Control D. Uncontrolled sampling 7. Research designs used because they answer questions ~ about human reactions and interactions include the following except: A. Case research methods B. Phenomenology C. Proposal D. Ethnography 8. Qualitative studies can help the nurse researcher: A. Identify needs of target population B. Improve the understanding of the impact of the intervention C. Understand the reasons for attrition, cessation of treatment, or lack of adherence to a treatment protocol. D. All of the above ANS: D 9. Qualitative research designs are sometimes referred to by this term when they refer to qualitative approaches. A. Interpretive B. Traditions C. Descriptive D. Analytical 10. This term describes when a sample size is big enough in Qualitative research. A. Proportional B. Purposeful C. Extreme D. Saturation ANS: D 1. Which phase of qualitative data analysis brings the researcher to the point of what he or she believes has truly emerged from the data: A. Comprehending B. Synthesizing C. Theorizing D. Recontextualizing 2. This is a method of analysis that involves a review of data as the data is gathered. This new data is compared toexisting data to confirm or refute conclusions and to decide when saturation has been reached. A. Saturation level B. Constant comparison C. Engagement D. Information analysis 3. Three major analytic styles that fall on a continuum between structure and lack of structure include all of the following except: A. Template analysis style B. Pre-Theoretical analysis style C. Immersion/crystallization style D. Editing analysis style 4. This is a process by which the researcher searches for meaning that may lead to a theory through a qualitativedata analysis and cognitive process. A. Recontextualizing B. Parsimonious C. Synthesizing D. Comprehending 5. At the conclusion of an intense examination of the data and the development of an overall schematic, the researcher develops more-specific categories of meaning based on what has been gathered. This term describes these categories of meaning. A. Relationships B. Perspectives C. Codes D. Perceptions 6. This is the smallest element of the data that can be analyzed; in qualitative analysis. This might include a document, phrase, word, or picture. A. Artifact B. Statement C. Unit of analysis D. Memorabilia 7. The qualitative researcher relies on four criteria to establish trustworthiness of conclusions. Which term listed below is not one of the four criteria: A. Transferable B. Dependable C. Credible D. Reliable ANS: D 8. This is characteristic of findings that reach congruence between two or more independent researchers. A. Transferable B. Dependable C. Confirmable D. Credible 9. This is a measure of interrater or intercoder reliability between two raters or coders. The analysis is taken further by generating a p-value for the probably that random error was responsible for the agreement. A. Pearson R B. Chi square C. Cohen's kappa D. ANOVA 10. This is a guide that outlines each code, its definition, and any criteria to place data into the category. A. Code database B. Codebook C. Diary D. Margin notes 1. The following terms identify reasons why research should be incorporated into practice except: A. Consumerism B. Recognize the researcher C. Cost implications D. Quality and patient safety 2. This regulatory body is a nationally sought measurement of quality by hospitals and other health care agencies. A. Tennessee Board of Trustees B. California Health Care Association C. Joint Commission D. United States Board of Governors 3. Woods & Magyary (2010) identified the following two critical skills for knowledge translation. A. Traditional models of research and isolation techniques B. Variety of data collection methods and treatments C. Integrative analysis and dissemination D. Team science and transdisciplinary efforts ANS: D 4. Common electronic databases for literature searches include all the following except: A. Medline B. Google C. Pubmed D. CINAHL 5. This is the cornerstone of evidence-based practice and describes the collection and analysis of all available research on a topic. A. Systematic review B. Literature review C. Methodology review D. Introductory review 6. This is a methodology that synthesizes empirical, theoretical, and experiential research to provide a more comprehensive understanding of the human response to health, illness, and interventions. A. Literature review B. Search strategy C. Integrative review D. Statistical review 7. This is an appealing approach for qualitative researchers because it has characteristics of methods that elevate the level of evidence provided by the outcome. A. Meta-analysis B. Qualitative Meta-synthesis C. Synthesis analysis D. Combination analysis 8. This model of evidence-based practice is based on a five-step process. A. The Iowa Model B. The Johns Hopkins Model C. Outcomes focused knowledge translation at the bedside D. Collaborative model for knowledge translation 9. This is the dynamic part of the Collaborative model for knowledge translation and is made up of the collaborative relationship between researchers and nurses. A. The content dimension B. The risk dimension C. The process dimension D. The research dimension 10. This model of research incorporates the impact of internal and external environmental factors on nursing problems. A. Knowledge translation as part of Magnet recognition B. The Johns Hopkins Model C. Collaborative model for knowledge translation D. The Community Based Research Translation Model ANS: D

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