BSN 315 HESI RN SPECIALTY
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM V1 (LATEST
2026/2027 UPDATE) QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT | GRADE A -
NIGHTINGALE
AT NIGHTINGALE COLLEGE
BSN 315 – HESI RN Specialty Pharmacology Exam V1
Latest Update 2026/2027
Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A – Nightinga
Question 1
Which action should the nurse implement to assess the effectiveness of amlodipine
therapy?
A. Review the client’s intake and output
B. Monitor the client’s serum electrolytes
C. Measure the client’s blood pressure
D. Assess the client’s serum calcium levels
Correct Answer: C. Measure the client’s blood pressure
Rationale:
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily to treat hypertension and
angina by relaxing vascular smooth muscle. The most direct indicator of therapeutic
effectiveness is a reduction in systemic blood pressure. Intake and output and
electrolyte levels are not primary indicators of amlodipine efficacy. Serum calcium
levels are not routinely affected by this medication.
,Question 2
The nurse administers naloxone to a client experiencing opioid-induced respiratory
depression. One hour later, the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute,
oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unresponsive. Which action should the nurse take
next?
A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B. Determine the Glasgow Coma Scale score
C. Administer a second dose of naloxone
D. Prepare for chest tube insertion
Correct Answer: C. Administer a second dose of naloxone
Rationale:
Naloxone has a shorter half-life than most opioids, making repeat dosing necessary in
some cases. The client is exhibiting life-threatening respiratory depression, which
requires immediate reversal of opioid effects. CPR is not indicated unless the client is
pulseless. Chest tube insertion is unrelated to opioid overdose management.
Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client prescribed sucralfate for peptic
ulcer disease. Which instruction is most important?
A. Take the medication with meals
B. Continue normal dosing if a dose is missed
C. Take the medication on an empty stomach one hour before meals
D. Take the medication with antacids for better absorption
Correct Answer: C. Take the medication on an empty stomach one hour
before meals
Rationale:
Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcer sites and requires an acidic
environment to be effective. Administering it on an empty stomach allows optimal
coating of the ulcer. Taking it with food or antacids reduces its effectiveness. Proper
timing is essential for therapeutic success.
,Question 4
The nurse provides discharge education to a client prescribed gabapentin for
postherpetic neuralgia. Which symptom should the client report to the healthcare
provider?
A. Gastric irritation
B. Sexual dysfunction
C. Photosensitivity
D. Rapid weight gain
Correct Answer: D. Rapid weight gain
Rationale:
Gabapentin can cause weight gain due to fluid retention and increased appetite. Rapid
or excessive weight gain may indicate edema or adverse metabolic effects. Gastric
irritation and photosensitivity are not common side effects of gabapentin. Early
reporting allows timely medication adjustment.
Question 5
A prescription for ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every 12 hours is to be infused over 1 hour.
The IV solution contains 400 mg in 200 mL. At what rate should the nurse program the
infusion pump?
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 150 mL/hr
C. 200 mL/hr
D. 250 mL/hr
Correct Answer: C. 200 mL/hr
Rationale:
The total volume of 200 mL is to be infused over one hour. Dividing total volume by
time yields an infusion rate of 200 mL per hour. Accurate calculation ensures
, therapeutic dosing and prevents infusion-related complications. Ciprofloxacin should
be infused slowly to avoid vein irritation.
Question 6
A client with a fungal toenail infection reports no improvement after two weeks of OTC
triple antibiotic ointment use. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Advise increasing application frequency
B. Recommend prescription-strength topical antibiotics
C. Reassure the client that fungal infections resolve slowly
D. Instruct the client to obtain a prescription for oral terbinafine
Correct Answer: D. Instruct the client to obtain a prescription for oral
terbinafine
Rationale:
Fungal nail infections require antifungal therapy, not antibacterial agents. Oral
terbinafine is often necessary due to poor penetration of topical treatments into the
nail bed. Increasing topical antibiotics will not treat fungal organisms. Prompt
antifungal therapy prevents further nail damage.
Question 7
A client receiving metoclopramide for chemotherapy-induced nausea develops
involuntary facial and extremity movements. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Document the finding as expected
B. Administer diphenhydramine
C. Report the finding to the provider immediately
D. Reduce the medication dose
Correct Answer: C. Report the finding to the provider immediately
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM V1 (LATEST
2026/2027 UPDATE) QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT | GRADE A -
NIGHTINGALE
AT NIGHTINGALE COLLEGE
BSN 315 – HESI RN Specialty Pharmacology Exam V1
Latest Update 2026/2027
Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A – Nightinga
Question 1
Which action should the nurse implement to assess the effectiveness of amlodipine
therapy?
A. Review the client’s intake and output
B. Monitor the client’s serum electrolytes
C. Measure the client’s blood pressure
D. Assess the client’s serum calcium levels
Correct Answer: C. Measure the client’s blood pressure
Rationale:
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily to treat hypertension and
angina by relaxing vascular smooth muscle. The most direct indicator of therapeutic
effectiveness is a reduction in systemic blood pressure. Intake and output and
electrolyte levels are not primary indicators of amlodipine efficacy. Serum calcium
levels are not routinely affected by this medication.
,Question 2
The nurse administers naloxone to a client experiencing opioid-induced respiratory
depression. One hour later, the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute,
oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unresponsive. Which action should the nurse take
next?
A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B. Determine the Glasgow Coma Scale score
C. Administer a second dose of naloxone
D. Prepare for chest tube insertion
Correct Answer: C. Administer a second dose of naloxone
Rationale:
Naloxone has a shorter half-life than most opioids, making repeat dosing necessary in
some cases. The client is exhibiting life-threatening respiratory depression, which
requires immediate reversal of opioid effects. CPR is not indicated unless the client is
pulseless. Chest tube insertion is unrelated to opioid overdose management.
Question 3
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client prescribed sucralfate for peptic
ulcer disease. Which instruction is most important?
A. Take the medication with meals
B. Continue normal dosing if a dose is missed
C. Take the medication on an empty stomach one hour before meals
D. Take the medication with antacids for better absorption
Correct Answer: C. Take the medication on an empty stomach one hour
before meals
Rationale:
Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcer sites and requires an acidic
environment to be effective. Administering it on an empty stomach allows optimal
coating of the ulcer. Taking it with food or antacids reduces its effectiveness. Proper
timing is essential for therapeutic success.
,Question 4
The nurse provides discharge education to a client prescribed gabapentin for
postherpetic neuralgia. Which symptom should the client report to the healthcare
provider?
A. Gastric irritation
B. Sexual dysfunction
C. Photosensitivity
D. Rapid weight gain
Correct Answer: D. Rapid weight gain
Rationale:
Gabapentin can cause weight gain due to fluid retention and increased appetite. Rapid
or excessive weight gain may indicate edema or adverse metabolic effects. Gastric
irritation and photosensitivity are not common side effects of gabapentin. Early
reporting allows timely medication adjustment.
Question 5
A prescription for ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every 12 hours is to be infused over 1 hour.
The IV solution contains 400 mg in 200 mL. At what rate should the nurse program the
infusion pump?
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 150 mL/hr
C. 200 mL/hr
D. 250 mL/hr
Correct Answer: C. 200 mL/hr
Rationale:
The total volume of 200 mL is to be infused over one hour. Dividing total volume by
time yields an infusion rate of 200 mL per hour. Accurate calculation ensures
, therapeutic dosing and prevents infusion-related complications. Ciprofloxacin should
be infused slowly to avoid vein irritation.
Question 6
A client with a fungal toenail infection reports no improvement after two weeks of OTC
triple antibiotic ointment use. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Advise increasing application frequency
B. Recommend prescription-strength topical antibiotics
C. Reassure the client that fungal infections resolve slowly
D. Instruct the client to obtain a prescription for oral terbinafine
Correct Answer: D. Instruct the client to obtain a prescription for oral
terbinafine
Rationale:
Fungal nail infections require antifungal therapy, not antibacterial agents. Oral
terbinafine is often necessary due to poor penetration of topical treatments into the
nail bed. Increasing topical antibiotics will not treat fungal organisms. Prompt
antifungal therapy prevents further nail damage.
Question 7
A client receiving metoclopramide for chemotherapy-induced nausea develops
involuntary facial and extremity movements. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Document the finding as expected
B. Administer diphenhydramine
C. Report the finding to the provider immediately
D. Reduce the medication dose
Correct Answer: C. Report the finding to the provider immediately
