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NCLEX RN ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK WITH REAL AND EXACT EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS NCLEX 2025/2026 NCLEX EXAM 860+ Q&A

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NCLEX RN ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK WITH REAL AND EXACT EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS NCLEX 2025/2026 NCLEX EXAM 860+ Q&A

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NCLEX RN ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK, REAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS NCLEX
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QUESTION 1 w



Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
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A. Positive inotropes
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B. Vasodilators
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C. Diuretics
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D. Antidysrhythmics
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Answer: A w



wExplanation:
(A) Positive inotropic agents should not be administered owing to their action of increasing myocardial
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wcontractility. Increased ventricular contractility would increase outflow tract obstruction in the client with
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whypertrophic cardiomyopathy. (B) Vasodilators are not typically prescribed but are not contraindicated. (C)
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wDiuretics are used with caution to avoid causing hypovolemi
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A. (D) Antidysrhythmics are typically needed to treat both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.
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QUESTION 2 w



Signs and symptoms of an allergy attack include which of the following?
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A. Wheezing on inspiration
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B. Increased respiratory rate
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C. Circumoral cyanosis
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D. Prolonged expiration
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Answer: D w



wExplanation:
(A) Wheezing occurs during expiration when air movement is impaired because of constricted edematous bronchial
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wlumin
A. (B) Respirations are difficult, but the rate is frequently normal. (C) The circumoral area is usually pale. Cyanosis
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wis not an early sign of hypoxi
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A. (D) Expiration is prolonged because the alveoli are greatly distended and air trapping occurs.
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QUESTION 3 w



A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type of
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hallucination?
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A. Auditory
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B. Gustatory
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C. Olfactory
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D. Visceral
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Answer: B w



wExplanation:
(A) Auditory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of hearing. (B) Gustatory hallucinations involve
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wsensory perceptions of taste. (C) Olfactory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of smell. (D) Visceral
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hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of sensation
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,QUESTION
4 Which of the following findings would be abnormal in a postpartal woman?
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A. Chills shortly after delivery w w w



B. Pulse rate of 60 bpm in morning on first postdelivery day
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C. Urinary output of 3000 mL on the second day after delivery
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D. An oral temperature of 101F (38.3C) on the third day after delivery
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Answer: D w



wExplanation:
(A) Frequently the mother experiences a shaking chill immediately after delivery, which is related to a nervous
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wresponse or to vasomotor changes. If not followed by a fever, it is clinically innocuous. (B) The pulse rate
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wduring the immediate postpartal period may be low but presents no cause for alarm. The body attempts to adapt
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wto the decreased pressures intra-abdominally as well as from the reduction of blood flow to the vascular bed. (C)
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wUrinary output increases during the early postpartal period (12–24 hours) owing to diuresis. The kidneys must
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weliminate an estimated 2000–3000 mL of extracellular fluid associated with a normal pregnancy. (D) A
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wtemperature of 100.4F (38C) may occur after delivery as a result of exertion and dehydration of labor. However,
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wanytemperature greater than 100.4F needs further investigation to identify any infectious process.
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QUESTION 5 w



A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the
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parents, the nurse states that:
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A. Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizures
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B. Febrile seizures do not usually recur w w w w w



C. There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizures
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D. Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system
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Answer: C w



wExplanation:
(A) The temperature elevation related to febrile seizures generally exceeds 101F, and seizures occur during the
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wtemperature rise rather than after a prolonged elevation. (B) Febrile seizures may recur and are more likely to do
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wso when the first seizure occurs in the 1st year of life. (C) There is little risk of neurological deficit, mental
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wretardation, or altered behavior secondary to febrile seizures. (D) Febrile seizures are associated with disease of
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wthe central nervous system.
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QUESTION 6 w



A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder continues to be hyperactive and to lose weight. Which of the following
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nutritional interventions would be most therapeutic for him at this time?
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A. Small, frequent feedings of foods that can be carried
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B. Tube feedings with nutritional supplements
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C. Allowing him to eat when and what he wants w w w w w w w w



D. Giving him a quiet place where he can sit down to eat meals
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Answer: A w



wExplanation:
(A) The manic client is unable to sit still long enough to eat an adequate meal. Small, frequent feedings with
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,finger foods allow him to eat during periods of activity. (B) This type of therapy should be implemented when
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wother methods have been exhausted. (C) The manic client should not be in control of his treatment plan. This
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wtype of client may forget to eat. (D) The manic client is unable to sit down to eat full meals.
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QUESTION 7 w



A client with bipolar disorder taking lithium tells the nurse that he has ringing in his ears, blurred vision, and
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diarrhe
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A. The nurse notices a slight tremor in his left hand and a slurring pattern to his speech. Which of the following
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actions by the nurse is appropriate?
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A. Administer a stat dose of lithium as necessary.
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B. Recognize this as an expected response to lithium.
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C. Request an order for a stat blood lithium level.
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D. Give an oral dose of lithium antidote.
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Answer: C w



wExplanation:
(A) These symptoms are indicative of lithium toxicity. A stat dose of lithium could be fatal.
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(B) These are toxic effects of lithium therapy. (C) The client is exhibiting symptoms of lithium toxicity, which
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wmay be validated by lab studies. (D) There is no known lithium antidote.
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QUESTION 8 w



A diagnosis of hepatitis C is confirmed by a male client‘s physician. The nurse should be knowledgeable of the
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differences between hepatitis A, B, and C. Which of the following are characteristics of hepatitis C?
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A. The potential for chronic liver disease is minimal.
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B. The onset of symptoms is abrupt.
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C. The incubation period is 2–26 weeks.
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D. There is an effective vaccine for hepatitis B, but not for hepatitis C.
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Answer: C w



wExplanation:
(A) Hepatitis C and B may result in chronic liver disease. Hepatitis A has a low potential for chronic liver
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wdisease. (B) Hepatitis C and B have insidious onsets. Hepatitis A has an abrupt onset. (C) Incubation periods are
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was follows: hepatitis C is 2–26 weeks, hepatitis B is 6–20 weeks, and hepatitis A is 2–6 weeks. (D) Only
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whepatitis B has an effective vaccine. w w w w w




QUESTION 9 w



Hypoxia is the primary problem related to near-drowning victims. The first organ that sustains irreversible
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damage after submersion in water is the:
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A. Kidney (urinary system) w w



B. Brain (nervous system) w w



C. Heart (circulatory system) w w



D. Lungs (respiratory system) w w




Answer: B w



Explanation:
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A+

, (A) The kidney can survive after 30 minutes of water submersion. (B) The cerebral neurons sustain irreversible
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wdamage after 4–6 minutes of water submersion. (C) The heart can survive up to 30 minutes of water submersion.
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(D) The lungs can survive up to 30 minutes of water submersion.
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QUESTION 10 w



Which of the following activities would be most appropriate during occupational therapy for a client with
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bipolar disorder?
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A. Playing cards with other clients w w w w



B. Working crossword puzzles w w



C. Playing tennis with a staff member w w w w w



D. Sewing beads on a leather belt w w w w w




Answer: C w



wExplanation:
(A) This activity is too competitive, and the manic client might become abusive toward the other clients. (B)
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wDuring mania, the client‘s attention span is too short to accomplish this task. (C) This activity uses gross motor
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wskills, eases tension, and expands excess energy. A staff member is better equipped to interact therapeutically
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wwith clients. (D) This activity requires the use of fine motor skills and is very tedious.
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QUESTION 11 w



A 30-year-old male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. For the last 2
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months, his family describes him as being ―on the move,‖ sleeping
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3–4 hours nightly, spending lots of money, and losing approximately 10 lb. During the initial
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assessment with the client, the nurse would expect him to exhibit which of the following?
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A. Short, polite responses to interview questions
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B. Introspection related to his present situation w w w w w



C. Exaggerated self-importance w



D. Feelings of helplessness and hopelessness w w w w




Answer: C w



wExplanation:
(A) During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients have short attention spans and may be abusive toward
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wauthority figures. (B) Introspection requires focusing and concentration; clients with mania experience flight of
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wideas, which prevents concentration.
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(C) Grandiosity and an inflated sense of self-worth are characteristic of this disorder. (D) Feelings of
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whelplessness and hopelessness are symptoms of the depressive stage of bipolar disorder.
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QUESTION 12 w



Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality.
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When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy
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is:
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A. 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dL
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B. 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL
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C. 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dL
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D. 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL
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A+

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